This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 921
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A reverse radial forearm osteocutaneous flap is planned for a patient with a first metacarpal bone and soft tissue defect. To prevent a late iatrogenic radius fracture, what is the maximum recommended cross-sectional diameter of the radius that can be safely harvested?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30-40%
Explanation
When harvesting a radial forearm osteocutaneous flap, a maximum of 30-40% of the cross-sectional area of the radius should be taken. Prophylactic plating or strict immobilization is often recommended to prevent pathological fractures of the remaining bone.
Question 922
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient requires soft tissue coverage for a dorsal hand defect. The surgeon opts against a reverse radial forearm flap to avoid sacrificing a major artery and instead chooses a posterior interosseous artery (PIA) flap. The PIA flap relies on retrograde flow from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous artery via the distal radioulnar communicating branch
Explanation
The posterior interosseous artery (PIA) flap is a valuable alternative that spares the major arteries of the hand. It relies on retrograde flow from the anterior interosseous artery through the distal communicating branch located proximal to the distal radioulnar joint.
Question 923
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Several hours after a successful reverse radial forearm flap transfer, the patient exhibits an acutely ischemic hand with absent capillary refill in the digits. The flap itself remains pink with brisk capillary refill. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unrecognized anomalous palmar arch anatomy or ulnar artery insufficiency causing hand ischemia after radial artery sacrifice
Explanation
If the flap is well-perfused but the hand is ischemic, the palmar arches or ulnar artery are failing to supply the hand after the radial artery was sacrificed. This underscores the critical importance of a rigorous preoperative Allen test and Doppler assessment to rule out ulnar insufficiency.
Question 924
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 42-year-old female presents with severe, radiating neuropathic pain on the dorsoradial aspect of her hand 6 months after undergoing a reverse radial forearm flap. Tinel's sign is strongly positive over the mid-forearm at the donor site. Which structure was most likely injured during flap harvest?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
Explanation
The superficial branch of the radial nerve courses deep to the brachioradialis and emerges in the subcutaneous tissues of the distal forearm. Inadvertent injury or entrapment during flap elevation can lead to a painful neuroma or neuropathic pain over the dorsoradial hand.
Question 925
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient requires a reverse radial forearm flap, but pre-operative angiography demonstrates a complete, co-dominant superficial palmar arch with a hypoplastic deep palmar arch. How does this finding affect the surgical plan?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The flap can be safely harvested as the superficial arch provides sufficient retrograde flow
Explanation
The reverse radial forearm flap can survive on retrograde flow from either a patent deep palmar arch or a complete superficial palmar arch. As long as collateral flow from the ulnar artery into the hand and radial artery stump is adequate, the harvest can proceed safely.
Question 926
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During the elevation of a reverse radial forearm flap, the surgeon dissects deep to the deep fascia. Which of the following neurological structures is most at risk of injury and must be carefully preserved along the deep surface of the brachioradialis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
Explanation
The superficial branch of the radial nerve runs deep to the brachioradialis in the mid-forearm and emerges subcutaneously in the distal third. It is highly susceptible to injury during the radial dissection of the flap and must be visually identified and preserved.
Question 927
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old trauma patient requires soft tissue coverage for a dorsal hand defect. An Allen test shows a capillary refill time of 15 seconds in the hand when the radial artery is compressed and the ulnar artery is released. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abandon the reverse radial forearm flap and select an alternative coverage option
Explanation
A delayed capillary refill (>7-10 seconds) upon ulnar artery release during an Allen test indicates inadequate ulnar collateral circulation (radial dominance). Harvesting the radial artery in this setting risks devastating ischemic necrosis of the hand, making the flap strictly contraindicated.
Question 928
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Postoperatively, a reverse radial forearm flap used for a dorsal hand defect develops severe venous congestion, characterized by a bluish hue and rapid capillary refill. To salvage the flap intraoperatively or during early re-exploration, what is the most effective surgical maneuver?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anastomose the proximal stump of the cephalic vein to a dorsal hand vein
Explanation
Venous congestion is the most common vascular complication of reverse flow flaps due to valvular resistance in the venae comitantes. Venous supercharging by anastomosing the flap's superficial vein (e.g., cephalic vein) to a superficial vein in the hand significantly improves venous outflow and flap survival.
Question 929
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A surgeon plans to reconstruct a dorsal hand defect using a reverse radial forearm flap but wishes to minimize donor site morbidity and avoid a conspicuous contour defect or a split-thickness skin graft over the volar forearm. Which of the following flap modifications is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Harvesting the flap as an adipofascial (fascia-only) flap
Explanation
Harvesting the reverse radial forearm flap as an adipofascial flap allows for primary closure of the forearm skin, significantly reducing donor site cosmetic and functional morbidity. The fascial surface is turned over the defect and subsequently covered with a skin graft.
Question 930
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A reverse radial forearm flap is planned to reconstruct a combined soft tissue and 3 cm bony defect of the first metacarpal. An osteocutaneous flap is designed. To prevent an iatrogenic radius fracture, what is the maximum recommended cross-sectional area of the radius that can be safely harvested with the pedicle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Up to 30% of the radius circumference
Explanation
When harvesting an osteocutaneous radial forearm flap, no more than 30% to 40% of the cross-sectional circumference of the radius should be taken to minimize the risk of a pathological fracture. Prophylactic plating of the radius donor site is also heavily recommended by many authors.
Question 931
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During a volar approach for open reduction internal fixation of a distal radius fracture, the surgeon identifies the 'volar watershed line.' What is the primary anatomical significance of this landmark in preventing a specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It represents the distal limit for volar plate placement to avoid flexor tendon irritation.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe volar watershed line is a critical anatomical landmark on the volar aspect of the distal radius. It represents the ridge where the volar capsule and ligaments attach. Plates or screws placed distal to this line risk impingement on and subsequent irritation or rupture of the flexor tendons, particularly the flexor pollicis longus (FPL). Therefore, the primary significance of the watershed line is to guide the distal placement of the volar locking plate, ensuring it remains proximal to this line to prevent flexor tendon complications. While the pronator quadratus is repaired over the plate, and screws are placed for bone purchase, the watershed line's specific role is tendon protection from hardware.
Question 932
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 35-year-old male sustains a distal radius fracture. Radiographs show an extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with an associated ulnar styloid fracture. According to the Frykman classification system, what type of fracture does this represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Frykman Type II
Explanation
The Frykman classification system categorizes distal radius fractures based on articular involvement and the presence of an ulnar styloid fracture: Type I: Extra-articular, no ulnar styloid fracture. Type II: Extra-articular, with ulnar styloid fracture. Type III: Intra-articular (radiocarpal joint only), no ulnar styloid fracture. Type IV: Intra-articular (radiocarpal joint only), with ulnar styloid fracture. Type V: Intra-articular (radiocarpal and distal radioulnar joint), no ulnar styloid fracture. Type VI: Intra-articular (radiocarpal and distal radioulnar joint), with ulnar styloid fracture. Therefore, an extra-articular distal radius fracture with an associated ulnar styloid fracture is classified as Frykman Type II.
Question 933
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following radiographic measurements is typically *increased* in a malunited Colles fracture with significant radial shortening?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar variance (positive).
Explanation
Correct Answer: DIn a typical Colles fracture, the distal radius is dorsally displaced and impacted, leading to several characteristic radiographic changes:Radial length (or radial height):This is typicallydecreaseddue to impaction.Radial inclination:This is oftendecreased(less steep angle).Volar tilt:This is lost or reversed, resulting indorsal tilt(a negative volar tilt).Ulnar variance:With radial shortening, the ulna appears relatively longer than the radius, leading topositive ulnar variance(ulna extends further distally than the radius). This is anincreasein the positive value or a shift from neutral/negative to positive.Carpal height ratio:This can also be affected, often decreased.Therefore, positive ulnar variance is the measurement that is typically increased (or becomes positive) in a malunited Colles fracture with significant radial shortening.
Question 934
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 72-year-old patient undergoes closed reduction and casting for a Colles fracture. Three weeks post-reduction, they develop increasing pain, swelling, skin discoloration (mottling), and temperature changes (warmth then coolness) in the affected hand, out of proportion to the injury. Active and passive range of motion of the digits is severely limited due to pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) Type I.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe constellation of symptoms described—increasing pain out of proportion to the injury, swelling, skin discoloration (trophic changes like mottling), temperature changes (autonomic dysfunction), and severely limited digital motion, developing weeks after the injury—is highly characteristic of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I, also known as Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD). This is a common and challenging complication after distal radius fractures. Acute median nerve compression would present with specific sensory and motor deficits in the median nerve distribution, typically earlier. Extensor pollicis longus rupture causes a specific loss of thumb extension. Acute compartment syndrome is an emergency occurring within hours to days, characterized by severe pain with passive stretching and potentially paresthesias and pallor, which is not the typical subacute presentation here. Ulnar styloid nonunion would primarily cause focal pain and possibly DRUJ instability, not generalized hand symptoms and autonomic changes.
Question 935
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 68-year-old male, 6 months post-Colles fracture treated conservatively, complains of chronic pain on the ulnar side of his wrist, especially with pronation and ulnar deviation. Radiographs show a healed distal radius fracture with significant radial shortening and positive ulnar variance. What is the most likely diagnosis for his current symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar impaction syndrome.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DChronic pain on the ulnar side of the wrist, particularly exacerbated by pronation and ulnar deviation, in a patient with a malunited Colles fracture characterized by significant radial shortening and positive ulnar variance, is highly indicative ofulnar impaction syndrome. Positive ulnar variance means the ulna is relatively longer than the radius, leading to increased load transmission through the ulnar side of the wrist, specifically impacting the ulnar head against the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) and the carpal bones (lunate and triquetrum). This can cause degenerative changes, TFCC tears, and pain. SLAC wrist is related to chronic scapholunate dissociation. Carpal tunnel syndrome presents with median nerve symptoms. EPL rupture causes loss of thumb extension. FCU tendonitis would be more localized to the FCU tendon insertion and not typically linked to malunion in this manner.
Question 936
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 30-year-old carpenter presents with a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender index finger 3 days after sustaining a minor puncture wound. Which of the following Kanavel signs is considered the most sensitive and earliest indicator of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe pain on passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel signs are used to diagnose pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Pain on passive extension of the affected digit is generally considered the most sensitive and earliest presenting clinical sign.
Question 937
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old female complains of numbness and tingling in her thumb, index, and middle fingers, which awakens her at night. Which physical examination maneuver has the highest documented sensitivity for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Durkan's carpal compression test
Explanation
Durkan's carpal compression test involves applying direct pressure over the carpal tunnel for up to 30 seconds. It is considered the most sensitive clinical examination maneuver for detecting carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 938
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. Which of the following represents the primary source of arterial blood supply to the proximal pole, increasing its risk for avascular necrosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the bone distally and flows in a retrograde fashion to the proximal pole.
Question 939
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male presents with a new onset of weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of his right foot, consistent with foot drop. Imaging reveals a large osteochondroma near the knee. Which anatomical structure's involvement by an osteochondroma would typically cause symptoms of foot drop?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneal nerve at the fibular neck
Explanation
Correct Answer: CAn osteochondroma at the proximal fibular neck can directly compress the common peroneal nerve, leading to symptoms of foot drop (weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot). The other nerves listed, if compressed, would cause different neurological deficits. Femoral nerve compression would affect quadriceps. Ulnar nerve at elbow causes intrinsic hand weakness. Tibial nerve in popliteal fossa causes calf and foot intrinsic weakness. Median nerve in carpal tunnel causes thumb and index/middle finger paresthesia and thenar weakness.
Question 940
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old woman sustains a minor injury to her ring finger. Radiographs show a minimally displaced fracture through a well-circumscribed, lytic lesion with stippled calcifications within the proximal phalanx. What is the appropriate initial step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Splint immobilization until the fracture heals
Explanation
The lesion is an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. Pathologic fractures through enchondromas should first be allowed to heal with splinting; elective curettage and grafting can be performed later if indicated.
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