This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 61
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old woman presents with neck pain radiating down her arm. She has weakness with wrist extension and a diminished brachioradialis reflex. She reports numbness over her thumb and index finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5
Explanation
The C6 nerve root provides motor innervation to the wrist extensors and sensory innervation to the thumb and index finger. It serves as the efferent limb of the brachioradialis reflex.
Question 62
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 1-year-old girl is diagnosed with a congenital scoliosis due to a unilateral unsegmented bar. Because of the high association with other organ system anomalies in the VACTERL association, which two screening tests are mandatory in the routine evaluation of this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL sequence anomalies (Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheoesophageal, Renal, Limb). An echocardiogram (cardiac) and a renal ultrasound (renal) are mandatory screenings to rule out life-threatening associated anomalies.
Question 63
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. To evaluate for the most commonly associated concomitant anomalies (VACTERL association), which imaging studies should be ordered?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Echocardiogram and renal ultrasound
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is frequently part of the VACTERL association (Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheoesophageal, Renal, Limb). An echocardiogram and renal ultrasound are essential for initial screening.
Question 64
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A newborn is noted to have a congenital thoracic scoliosis due to a fully segmented hemivertebra. Screening ultrasonography reveals a unilateral absent kidney. Which additional diagnostic test is most routinely indicated for this patient to rule out associated VACTERL anomalies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Echocardiogram
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL anomalies (Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheoesophageal, Renal, and Limb). An echocardiogram and renal ultrasound are essential screening studies.
Question 65
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 7-year-old boy presents with an established nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture of the humerus
that occurred 3 years ago. Which of the following nerve palsies is he at greatest risk of developing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Lateral condyle nonunions often lead to progressive cubitus valgus deformities. This valgus stretch pulls the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, classically causing tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 66
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 4-year-old child presents with an elbow injury. Radiographs reveal a displaced lateral condyle fracture.
If this fracture goes on to nonunion, which of the following long-term complications is most likely to develop?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus valgus and tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically results in a progressive cubitus valgus deformity due to loss of the lateral column support. Over years, this stretching of the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle can lead to tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 67
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old boy sustains a lateral condyle fracture of the humerus.
If left untreated, leading to nonunion and progressive deformity, what late neurological complication is he at highest risk of developing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Untreated or nonunited lateral condyle fractures often lead to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. This chronic stretching of the ulnar nerve over the medial epicondyle results in tardy ulnar nerve palsy years later.
Question 68
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A sexually active 21-year-old female presents with migratory polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis of the wrist, and sparse painless pustular skin lesions. Joint aspiration of her knee yields a WBC count of 45,000 cells/mm3. Gram stain is negative. What is the most common underlying host defect associated with disseminated infection by this organism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Terminal complement pathway deficiency (C5-C9)
Explanation
The presentation is classic for disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI). Patients with a deficiency in the terminal complement cascade (C5-C9), which forms the membrane attack complex, are at significantly increased risk for recurrent Neisserial infections.
Question 69
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A sexually active 17-year-old female presents with migratory polyarthralgias, pain along the flexor tendons of the wrist, and a few discrete pustular skin lesions on her extremities. She is afebrile. What is the most likely causative organism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation
Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) classically presents in sexually active adolescents with a triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis (pustular lesions), and migratory polyarthralgia.
Question 70
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
In a pediatric patient with a displaced lateral condyle humerus fracture, which of the following is the most significant clinical risk if the fracture fails to unite?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically leads to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. Over time, this valgus angulation chronically stretches the ulnar nerve, potentially resulting in tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 71
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following is an absolute indication for operative intervention in a pediatric medial epicondyle fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incarceration of the fragment in the joint
Explanation
Incarceration of the medial epicondyle fragment within the elbow joint block is an absolute indication for surgical extraction and fixation. Other parameters, such as displacement >5 mm or ulnar nerve symptoms, are considered relative indications.
Question 72
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old child sustains a posteromedially displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Which nerve is most frequently injured due to this specific displacement pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
Posteromedial displacement of the distal fragment causes the proximal fracture spike to displace anterolaterally. This uniquely places the radial nerve at the greatest risk of injury.
Question 73
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 14-year-old girl presents with progressive wrist pain and limited range of motion. Examination reveals a prominent distal ulna and volar subluxation of the hand. The failure of growth in this specific deformity primarily occurs at which aspect of the distal radius?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar-ulnar
Explanation
Madelung deformity is characterized by premature growth arrest of the volar-ulnar aspect of the distal radial physis. This leads to increased volar tilt, ulnar inclination, and relative ulnar overgrowth.
Question 74
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Evaluate the provided clinical image.
A 13-year-old female presents with bilateral wrist deformities. What is the standard surgical intervention for symptomatic, severe manifestations of this condition when a Vickers ligament is identified?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vickers ligament release with dome osteotomy of the radius
Explanation
For severe, symptomatic Madelung deformity in an adolescent with remaining growth, surgical treatment typically involves releasing the tethering Vickers ligament. This is usually combined with a corrective dome osteotomy of the distal radius.
Question 75
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 6-year-old boy falls from the monkey bars and sustains a completely displaced extension-type supracondylar fracture of the humerus. On physical examination, he is unable to make an "A-OK" sign with his thumb and index finger. Sensation in the hand is intact. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. It is a motor nerve only; injury results in the inability to flex the IP joint of the thumb and the DIP joint of the index finger.
Question 76
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 4-year-old child sustains a lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. The fracture is displaced by 4 mm. If left untreated, what is the most common long-term clinical deformity and potential neurological complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus valgus and tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Displaced lateral condyle fractures have a high rate of nonunion if not fixed properly. This can lead to progressive cubitus valgus deformity, which stretches the ulnar nerve over time, causing tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 77
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 2-year-old child presents with a right thumb that is locked in flexion at the interphalangeal joint. A nodule is palpable at the volar aspect of the MCP joint. What is the recommended initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and passive stretching exercises
Explanation
Pediatric trigger thumb resolves spontaneously in approximately 30% of cases within the first few years of life. Initial management is observation and stretching; A1 pulley release is reserved for cases failing to resolve by age 2 to 3.
Question 78
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for diagnosing a severe Volkmann ischemic contracture in the upper extremity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of elbow flexion
Explanation
Volkmann ischemic contracture results from untreated compartment syndrome, leading to necrosis and fibrosis of the deep volar forearm flexors. The classic finding is a wrist fixed in flexion, and the fingers can only be passively extended if the wrist is maximally flexed (tenodesis effect).
Question 79
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with complex syndactyly of the long and ring fingers. What is the fundamental difference between simple and complex syndactyly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Simple syndactyly involves only the skin and soft tissues, whereas complex involves bone fusion.
Explanation
In simple syndactyly, adjacent digits are joined only by skin and soft tissue. In complex syndactyly, there is an osseous or cartilaginous connection between the adjacent phalanges.
Question 80
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Macrodactyly of the hand in a child is a rare congenital anomaly characterized by overgrowth of all tissue elements. Which nerve territory is most frequently affected, and what systemic condition must be ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve; Marfan syndrome
Explanation
Macrodactyly most commonly affects the median nerve distribution in the hand. It is often associated with lipofibromatous hamartoma of the median nerve and is strongly associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1 and PIK3CA-related overgrowth spectrum (e.g., Proteus syndrome).
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.