This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 541
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male presents with persistent wrist pain 4 months after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a nonunion of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. Which of the following accurately describes the primary blood supply to this region, explaining the high rate of nonunion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retrograde flow from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives its major blood supply via the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the distal waist and flows retrograde to the proximal pole. This retrograde perfusion makes proximal pole fractures highly vulnerable to avascular necrosis and nonunion.
Question 542
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 19-year-old male presents with a swollen, erythematous right hand 48 hours after punching another individual in the mouth, sustaining a small laceration over the third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. In addition to Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, which of the following organisms must be empirically covered?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eikenella corrodens
Explanation
Human bite wounds ("fight bites") are highly prone to infection with Eikenella corrodens, a Gram-negative facultative anaerobe found in human dental plaque. Empirical antibiotic therapy typically includes amoxicillin-clavulanate to cover this alongside typical skin flora.
Question 543
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 45-year-old diabetic female presents with a 2-day history of right index finger pain and swelling. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist crease
Explanation
Kanavel's four signs include fusiform swelling, pain on passive extension, flexed resting posture, and tenderness along the flexor sheath. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist is not a cardinal sign, though it may indicate tracking infection.
Question 544
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 22-year-old rugby player felt a "pop" in his right ring finger while grabbing an opponent's jersey. He cannot actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Imaging reveals a small bony avulsion retracted into the palm. What is the optimal timing for surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 7 to 10 days to prevent irreversible tendon retraction and contracture
Explanation
This is a Leddy and Packer Type I "jersey finger" (FDP avulsion retracted into the palm). Because the vincula are disrupted, blood supply is severely compromised, necessitating repair within 7 to 10 days before irreversible retraction and tendon necrosis occur.
Question 545
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During surgical planning for a highly comminuted intra-articular distal radius fracture, the surgeon notes a displaced volar ulnar corner (lunate facet) fragment. Fixation of this specific fragment is critical to prevent carpal subluxation due to the attachment of which ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short radiolunate ligament
Explanation
The volar lunate facet is often referred to as the "critical corner" of the distal radius. It serves as the primary attachment site for the short radiolunate ligament, which is essential for preventing volar subluxation of the carpus.
Question 546
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A patient presents with a thumb injury after a skiing accident. Examination reveals gross instability with valgus stress at the thumb MCP joint. An MRI confirms a complete rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) with the torn edge displaced superficial to an aponeurosis. Which structure prevents anatomic healing in this Stener lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
Explanation
A Stener lesion occurs when the completely torn distal end of the UCL displaces superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This aponeurosis interposes between the torn ligament and its insertion, preventing conservative healing and necessitating surgical repair.
Question 547
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness in the forearm and hand. When asked to make an "OK" sign, the patient instead demonstrates a "flat pinch" with the index finger and thumb. Which combination of muscles is affected in this specific nerve entrapment syndrome?
The inability to make an "OK" sign (Moberg's sign) indicates Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN) syndrome. The AIN exclusively innervates the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index and long fingers, and the pronator quadratus.
Question 548
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old male punches a wall and sustains a closed, displaced fracture of the 5th metacarpal neck (Boxer's fracture). The fracture demonstrates apex dorsal angulation. Which muscle group is primarily responsible for deforming the distal fracture fragment volarly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intrinsic muscles (interossei and lumbricals)
Explanation
In a metacarpal neck fracture, the intrinsic muscles (interossei and lumbricals) exert a volar force on the proximal phalanx, which translates to flexing the distal metacarpal fragment volarly. This results in the characteristic apex dorsal angulation.
Question 549
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old motorcyclist falls onto a hyperextended wrist. Radiographs suggest a perilunate dislocation. According to the Mayfield progressive stages of perilunate instability, which carpal ligament is the first to rupture in this sequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
Explanation
Mayfield described a predictable sequence of perilunate instability. Stage I involves rupture of the scapholunate interosseous ligament, followed by the space of Poirier (Stage II), the lunotriquetral ligament (Stage III), and finally volar dislocation of the lunate (Stage IV).
Question 550
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 32-year-old female presents after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a volar shear fracture of the distal radius with subluxation of the carpus (volar Barton's fracture). What is the optimal biomechanical fixation method for this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar buttress plate
Explanation
A volar Barton's fracture involves an unstable volar shear fragment that allows the carpus to subluxate volarly. A volar plate applied in a buttress mode best neutralizes these shear forces and maintains joint congruity.
Question 551
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female undergoes volar locked plating of a distal radius fracture. Four weeks postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is a known complication of distal radius fractures and their fixation. It is often caused by prominent dorsal screw penetration or regional ischemia, presenting as a sudden loss of active thumb IP extension.
Question 552
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand. Initial radiographs are negative, but repeat imaging at 3 weeks reveals a displaced proximal pole scaphoid fracture. What is the primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery entering distally and flowing retrograde
Explanation
The scaphoid is supplied primarily by the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the distal pole and flows retrogradely. This retrograde supply explains the high rate of nonunion and AVN in proximal pole fractures.
Question 553
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old female, 3 months postpartum, presents with pain and swelling at the radial side of her dominant wrist. The pain is exacerbated by lifting her infant and by activities involving grasping and pinching. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the radial styloid and a positive Finkelstein's test (pain with ulnar deviation of the wrist while the thumb is flexed into the palm). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe patient's symptoms are classic for De Quervain's tenosynovitis, an inflammatory condition affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. This compartment contains the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons. Repetitive thumb and wrist movements, common in new mothers (e.g., lifting and holding an infant), can lead to inflammation and thickening of the tendon sheath. The positive Finkelstein's test is pathognomonic for this condition. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves median nerve compression. Trigger thumb involves stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor pollicis longus. A scaphoid fracture would typically follow acute trauma and present with different pain patterns. A ganglion cyst is a localized mass.
Question 554
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open carpal tunnel release, the longitudinal incision should be made in line with the radial border of the ring finger. Making the incision significantly radial to this axis most increases the risk of injuring which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
Explanation
The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve lies in the interval between the palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis. An incision placed too far radially risks injuring this nerve, potentially causing a painful neuroma.
Question 555
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic radial-sided wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis, but the radiolunate joint is preserved. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
Explanation
The patient has Stage III Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC). Because the capitolunate joint is arthritic, a proximal row carpectomy is contraindicated; therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is the procedure of choice to preserve some wrist motion.
Question 556
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
While enchondromas can occur in any bone, they are most frequently found in which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Small bones of the hands and feet
Explanation
Correct Answer: CEnchondromas are most commonly found in the small tubular bones of the hands and feet (phalanges, metacarpals, metatarsals). While they can occur in long bones like the humerus and femur, the appendicular skeleton, particularly the distal extremities, is their most frequent site.
Question 557
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 22-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. What anatomical characteristic of the scaphoid's blood supply places him at a high risk for avascular necrosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal to proximal retrograde intraosseous perfusion
Explanation
The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from branches of the radial artery that enter the distal pole and travel retrograde within the bone. Proximal pole fractures disrupt this flow, creating a high risk of avascular necrosis.
Question 558
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female undergoes volar locking plate fixation for a distal radius fracture. Six months later, she presents with an inability to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Plate prominence at which anatomical landmark is most responsible for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Watershed line
Explanation
Prominence of the volar plate distal to the watershed line significantly increases the risk of flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon attrition and rupture. Proper plate placement avoids bridging this critical landmark.
Question 559
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture using a volar locking plate. Four months postoperatively, she presents unable to actively flex the interphalangeal (IP) joint of her thumb. Which tendon has most likely ruptured, and what surgical technical error primarily increases the risk of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus; placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line.
Explanation
Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture is a well-known complication of volar plating for distal radius fractures. It occurs due to attritional wear when the plate is positioned too distally, projecting volar to the "watershed line" of the distal radius.
Question 560
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 7-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling from a tree, sustaining a Gartland Type III supracondylar humerus fracture with posteromedial displacement. Initial neurovascular examination reveals a warm, well-perfused hand with good capillary refill, but no palpable radial pulse. There are no acute neurological deficits. After successful closed reduction and percutaneous pinning with lateral-entry K-wires, the radial pulse remains non-palpable, but the hand remains warm, pink, and well-perfused with normal sensation and motor function. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation for 1-2 hours with strict neurovascular monitoring.
Explanation
The patient presents with a 'pulseless pink' hand after reduction and pinning of a supracondylar humerus fracture. While a 'pulseless pale' hand is an absolute surgical emergency requiring immediate exploration, a 'pulseless pink' hand (where the hand remains warm, well-perfused, and neurologically intact despite an absent pulse) allows for a period of observation. The goal is to monitor for spontaneous return of the pulse or any signs of evolving ischemia or neurological compromise.
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