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Question 541

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old male presents with persistent wrist pain 4 months after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a nonunion of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. Which of the following accurately describes the primary blood supply to this region, explaining the high rate of nonunion?

. Antegrade flow from the superficial palmar arch
. Retrograde flow from the volar carpal branch of the ulnar artery
. Retrograde flow from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
. Direct vascular branches from the anterior interosseous artery
. Antegrade flow from the deep palmar arch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retrograde flow from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery


Explanation

The scaphoid receives its major blood supply via the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the distal waist and flows retrograde to the proximal pole. This retrograde perfusion makes proximal pole fractures highly vulnerable to avascular necrosis and nonunion.

Question 542

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 19-year-old male presents with a swollen, erythematous right hand 48 hours after punching another individual in the mouth, sustaining a small laceration over the third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. In addition to Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, which of the following organisms must be empirically covered?

. Pasteurella multocida
. Mycobacterium marinum
. Sporothrix schenckii
. Eikenella corrodens
. Bartonella henselae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eikenella corrodens


Explanation

Human bite wounds ("fight bites") are highly prone to infection with Eikenella corrodens, a Gram-negative facultative anaerobe found in human dental plaque. Empirical antibiotic therapy typically includes amoxicillin-clavulanate to cover this alongside typical skin flora.

Question 543

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 45-year-old diabetic female presents with a 2-day history of right index finger pain and swelling. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis?

. Fusiform swelling of the entire digit
. Severe pain with passive extension of the digit
. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist crease
. Tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath
. The digit held in a flexed resting posture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist crease


Explanation

Kanavel's four signs include fusiform swelling, pain on passive extension, flexed resting posture, and tenderness along the flexor sheath. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist is not a cardinal sign, though it may indicate tracking infection.

Question 544

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 22-year-old rugby player felt a "pop" in his right ring finger while grabbing an opponent's jersey. He cannot actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Imaging reveals a small bony avulsion retracted into the palm. What is the optimal timing for surgical intervention?

. Immediate surgical exploration within 12 hours
. Within 7 to 10 days to prevent irreversible tendon retraction and contracture
. Within 3 to 4 weeks after swelling subsides
. After 6 weeks, utilizing a two-stage tendon reconstruction
. Nonoperative management with a dorsal blocking splint for 8 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 7 to 10 days to prevent irreversible tendon retraction and contracture


Explanation

This is a Leddy and Packer Type I "jersey finger" (FDP avulsion retracted into the palm). Because the vincula are disrupted, blood supply is severely compromised, necessitating repair within 7 to 10 days before irreversible retraction and tendon necrosis occur.

Question 545

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During surgical planning for a highly comminuted intra-articular distal radius fracture, the surgeon notes a displaced volar ulnar corner (lunate facet) fragment. Fixation of this specific fragment is critical to prevent carpal subluxation due to the attachment of which ligament?

. Radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Short radiolunate ligament
. Long radiolunate ligament
. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short radiolunate ligament


Explanation

The volar lunate facet is often referred to as the "critical corner" of the distal radius. It serves as the primary attachment site for the short radiolunate ligament, which is essential for preventing volar subluxation of the carpus.

Question 546

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A patient presents with a thumb injury after a skiing accident. Examination reveals gross instability with valgus stress at the thumb MCP joint. An MRI confirms a complete rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) with the torn edge displaced superficial to an aponeurosis. Which structure prevents anatomic healing in this Stener lesion?

. Abductor pollicis brevis aponeurosis
. Flexor pollicis brevis aponeurosis
. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
. Extensor pollicis longus tendon
. First dorsal interosseous aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis


Explanation

A Stener lesion occurs when the completely torn distal end of the UCL displaces superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This aponeurosis interposes between the torn ligament and its insertion, preventing conservative healing and necessitating surgical repair.

Question 547

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness in the forearm and hand. When asked to make an "OK" sign, the patient instead demonstrates a "flat pinch" with the index finger and thumb. Which combination of muscles is affected in this specific nerve entrapment syndrome?

. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor pollicis longus, and pronator teres
. Flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (index/long), and pronator quadratus
. Abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and superficial head of flexor pollicis brevis
. Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis proprius
. First dorsal interosseous, adductor pollicis, and flexor carpi ulnaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (index/long), and pronator quadratus


Explanation

The inability to make an "OK" sign (Moberg's sign) indicates Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN) syndrome. The AIN exclusively innervates the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index and long fingers, and the pronator quadratus.

Question 548

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 25-year-old male punches a wall and sustains a closed, displaced fracture of the 5th metacarpal neck (Boxer's fracture). The fracture demonstrates apex dorsal angulation. Which muscle group is primarily responsible for deforming the distal fracture fragment volarly?

. Extensor digitorum communis
. Flexor digitorum superficialis
. Intrinsic muscles (interossei and lumbricals)
. Flexor digitorum profundus
. Extensor digiti minimi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intrinsic muscles (interossei and lumbricals)


Explanation

In a metacarpal neck fracture, the intrinsic muscles (interossei and lumbricals) exert a volar force on the proximal phalanx, which translates to flexing the distal metacarpal fragment volarly. This results in the characteristic apex dorsal angulation.

Question 549

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old motorcyclist falls onto a hyperextended wrist. Radiographs suggest a perilunate dislocation. According to the Mayfield progressive stages of perilunate instability, which carpal ligament is the first to rupture in this sequence?
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Lunotriquetral interosseous ligament
. Radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
. Volar radiolunate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scapholunate interosseous ligament


Explanation

Mayfield described a predictable sequence of perilunate instability. Stage I involves rupture of the scapholunate interosseous ligament, followed by the space of Poirier (Stage II), the lunotriquetral ligament (Stage III), and finally volar dislocation of the lunate (Stage IV).

Question 550

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 32-year-old female presents after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a volar shear fracture of the distal radius with subluxation of the carpus (volar Barton's fracture). What is the optimal biomechanical fixation method for this specific fracture pattern?

. Dorsal spanning plate
. Volar buttress plate
. External fixation
. Percutaneous K-wire pinning
. Short arm cast in flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar buttress plate


Explanation

A volar Barton's fracture involves an unstable volar shear fragment that allows the carpus to subluxate volarly. A volar plate applied in a buttress mode best neutralizes these shear forces and maintains joint congruity.

Question 551

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 65-year-old female undergoes volar locked plating of a distal radius fracture. Four weeks postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most likely cause?

. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon
. Injury to the posterior interosseous nerve
. Flexor pollicis longus tendon rupture
. Nonunion of the distal radius
. Complex regional pain syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon


Explanation

Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is a known complication of distal radius fractures and their fixation. It is often caused by prominent dorsal screw penetration or regional ischemia, presenting as a sudden loss of active thumb IP extension.

Question 552

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 24-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand. Initial radiographs are negative, but repeat imaging at 3 weeks reveals a displaced proximal pole scaphoid fracture. What is the primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?

. Palmar carpal branch of the radial artery
. Superficial palmar arch
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery entering distally and flowing retrograde
. Anterior interosseous artery
. Ulnar artery via the deep palmar arch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery entering distally and flowing retrograde


Explanation

The scaphoid is supplied primarily by the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the distal pole and flows retrogradely. This retrograde supply explains the high rate of nonunion and AVN in proximal pole fractures.

Question 553

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old female, 3 months postpartum, presents with pain and swelling at the radial side of her dominant wrist. The pain is exacerbated by lifting her infant and by activities involving grasping and pinching. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the radial styloid and a positive Finkelstein's test (pain with ulnar deviation of the wrist while the thumb is flexed into the palm). What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Carpal tunnel syndrome
. Trigger thumb
. De Quervain's tenosynovitis
. Scaphoid fracture
. Ganglion cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. De Quervain's tenosynovitis


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe patient's symptoms are classic for De Quervain's tenosynovitis, an inflammatory condition affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. This compartment contains the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons. Repetitive thumb and wrist movements, common in new mothers (e.g., lifting and holding an infant), can lead to inflammation and thickening of the tendon sheath. The positive Finkelstein's test is pathognomonic for this condition. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves median nerve compression. Trigger thumb involves stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor pollicis longus. A scaphoid fracture would typically follow acute trauma and present with different pain patterns. A ganglion cyst is a localized mass.

Question 554

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During an open carpal tunnel release, the longitudinal incision should be made in line with the radial border of the ring finger. Making the incision significantly radial to this axis most increases the risk of injuring which structure?

. Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
. Superficial palmar arch
. Ulnar artery
. Hook of the hamate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve


Explanation

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve lies in the interval between the palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis. An incision placed too far radially risks injuring this nerve, potentially causing a painful neuroma.

Question 555

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic radial-sided wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis, but the radiolunate joint is preserved. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Scaphoid open reduction and internal fixation with bone grafting
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
. Radial styloidectomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion


Explanation

The patient has Stage III Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC). Because the capitolunate joint is arthritic, a proximal row carpectomy is contraindicated; therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is the procedure of choice to preserve some wrist motion.

Question 556

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

While enchondromas can occur in any bone, they are most frequently found in which anatomical location?

. Proximal femur
. Proximal tibia
. Small bones of the hands and feet
. Vertebral bodies
. Cranial vault

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Small bones of the hands and feet


Explanation

Correct Answer: CEnchondromas are most commonly found in the small tubular bones of the hands and feet (phalanges, metacarpals, metatarsals). While they can occur in long bones like the humerus and femur, the appendicular skeleton, particularly the distal extremities, is their most frequent site.

Question 557

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 22-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. What anatomical characteristic of the scaphoid's blood supply places him at a high risk for avascular necrosis?

. Volar to dorsal intraosseous perfusion
. Distal to proximal retrograde intraosseous perfusion
. Proximal to distal antegrade intraosseous perfusion
. Exclusive supply from the ulnar artery
. Lack of intraosseous anastomoses

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal to proximal retrograde intraosseous perfusion


Explanation

The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from branches of the radial artery that enter the distal pole and travel retrograde within the bone. Proximal pole fractures disrupt this flow, creating a high risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 558

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 60-year-old female undergoes volar locking plate fixation for a distal radius fracture. Six months later, she presents with an inability to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Plate prominence at which anatomical landmark is most responsible for this complication?

. Lister's tubercle
. Sigmoid notch
. Watershed line
. Radial styloid
. Ulnar styloid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Watershed line


Explanation

Prominence of the volar plate distal to the watershed line significantly increases the risk of flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon attrition and rupture. Proper plate placement avoids bridging this critical landmark.

Question 559

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 60-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture using a volar locking plate. Four months postoperatively, she presents unable to actively flex the interphalangeal (IP) joint of her thumb. Which tendon has most likely ruptured, and what surgical technical error primarily increases the risk of this complication?

. Extensor pollicis longus; prominent dorsal screws projecting past the dorsal cortex.
. Flexor pollicis longus; placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line.
. Flexor carpi radialis; attrition over the proximal edge of the plate.
. Flexor digitorum profundus of the index finger; intra-articular screw penetration.
. Extensor digitorum communis; overpenetration of volar locking screws.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor pollicis longus; placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line.


Explanation

Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture is a well-known complication of volar plating for distal radius fractures. It occurs due to attritional wear when the plate is positioned too distally, projecting volar to the "watershed line" of the distal radius.

Question 560

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 7-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling from a tree, sustaining a Gartland Type III supracondylar humerus fracture with posteromedial displacement. Initial neurovascular examination reveals a warm, well-perfused hand with good capillary refill, but no palpable radial pulse. There are no acute neurological deficits. After successful closed reduction and percutaneous pinning with lateral-entry K-wires, the radial pulse remains non-palpable, but the hand remains warm, pink, and well-perfused with normal sensation and motor function. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate surgical exploration of the brachial artery.
. Urgent angiography to delineate the vascular injury.
. Observation for 1-2 hours with strict neurovascular monitoring.
. Removal of K-wires and re-reduction of the fracture.
. Application of a long arm cast and discharge with close follow-up.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation for 1-2 hours with strict neurovascular monitoring.


Explanation

The patient presents with a 'pulseless pink' hand after reduction and pinning of a supracondylar humerus fracture. While a 'pulseless pale' hand is an absolute surgical emergency requiring immediate exploration, a 'pulseless pink' hand (where the hand remains warm, well-perfused, and neurologically intact despite an absent pulse) allows for a period of observation. The goal is to monitor for spontaneous return of the pulse or any signs of evolving ischemia or neurological compromise.