This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5001
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old male sustains a volar laceration to his proximal phalanx (Zone II) requiring primary flexor tendon repair. Which of the following rehabilitation protocols best promotes intrinsic tendon healing while minimizing adhesion formation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early active extension and passive flexion
Explanation
Early active extension and passive flexion (e.g., modified Duran or Kleinert protocol) minimizes peritendinous adhesions while protecting the newly repaired tendon. Modern protocols rely on controlled tendon glides rather than strict immobilization.
Question 5002
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon must identify and protect the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. What is the most common anatomic variation of this motor branch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extraligamentous with a recurrent course
Explanation
The extraligamentous type with a recurrent course is the most common anatomical variation (approximately 50-80%) of the recurrent motor branch. Transligamentous and subligamentous variants carry a much higher risk of iatrogenic transection.
Question 5003
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture and presents with a complete radial nerve palsy. An EMG performed at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the brachioradialis and no voluntary motor unit action potentials. However, clinical recovery is noted at 12 weeks. According to the Seddon classification, what was the most likely initial nerve injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axonotmesis
Explanation
Axonotmesis involves disruption of the axon and myelin sheath, but the supporting connective tissue (endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium) remains intact. Wallerian degeneration occurs distally, causing fibrillation potentials on EMG at 3-4 weeks. The intact tubes allow for directed axonal regeneration (1 mm/day), leading to spontaneous clinical recovery. Neuropraxia does not display fibrillation potentials since the axon remains intact.
Question 5004
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old carpenter presents with progressive right hand weakness and numbness over the past 6 months, primarily affecting the thumb, index, and middle fingers. He reports a constant dull ache in the forearm. Physical examination reveals thenar atrophy, weakness of thumb opposition and abduction, and positive Tinel's sign at the wrist. Nerve conduction studies show severe carpal tunnel syndrome. He has undergone two steroid injections with only transient relief. What is the most significant factor influencing the outcome of surgical release in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severity and duration of preoperative motor weakness and thenar atrophy.
Explanation
For carpal tunnel syndrome, the most significant factor influencing the outcome of surgical release is the severity and duration of preoperative nerve compression, particularly as manifested by motor weakness and thenar atrophy. Severe, long-standing compression can lead to irreversible axonal damage and muscle atrophy, limiting the extent of functional recovery post-operatively. While age and activity can play a role, and chronic pain can be debilitating, the extent of nerve damage is paramount. The type of surgical incision (open vs. endoscopic) has not been shown to significantly impact long-term functional outcomes. Associated cervical radiculopathy can complicate the clinical picture but isn't the primary determinant of outcome for the carpal tunnel release itself.
Question 5005
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 40-year-old carpenter presents with a swollen, erythematous, and painful index finger after sustaining a puncture wound 2 days ago. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with active finger flexion
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs include fusiform swelling, tenderness along the tendon sheath, resting flexion posture, and pain with passive extension. Pain with active flexion is not one of the specific classic signs, as pain on passive extension is the most sensitive early indicator.
Question 5006
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old carpenter sustains a puncture wound to his right index finger. Two days later, he presents with severe pain and swelling. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Erythema extending to the forearm
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis include flexed resting posture, fusiform swelling, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain on passive extension. Erythema extending to the forearm indicates spreading cellulitis or lymphangitis.
Question 5007
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain years after a FOOSH injury. Imaging reveals a scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). Which joint is classically spared in the typical progression of a SNAC wrist?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioscaphoid joint
Explanation
In Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), degenerative changes begin at the radioscaphoid joint and progress to the midcarpal joints. The radiolunate joint is classically spared due to its concentric articulation and preserved congruency.
Question 5008
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a fracture through the proximal pole of the scaphoid. He is at high risk for nonunion and avascular necrosis due to the retrograde nature of the scaphoid's blood supply. The primary vascular supply to the proximal pole is derived directly from the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This vessel enters distally and provides retrograde blood flow to the proximal pole, predisposing proximal fractures to avascular necrosis.
Question 5009
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a dorsally comminuted distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she presents with an inability to extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. The attritional rupture of this tendon is most likely due to prominent screws penetrating the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Third extensor compartment
Explanation
Volar plate screws that penetrate too far dorsally can cause attritional rupture of the extensor tendons. The Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon, located uniquely in the third extensor compartment crossing Lister's tubercle, is the most frequently injured.
Question 5010
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old male presents with chronic radial-sided wrist pain 2 years after an untreated fall on an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion. In the progression of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), which joint is characteristically the first to develop degenerative arthritic changes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioscaphoid joint
Explanation
In Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), the earliest arthritic change (Stage 1) occurs at the articulation between the radial styloid and the distal pole of the scaphoid. The radiolunate joint is typically spared entirely throughout the disease process.
Question 5011
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 52-year-old female presents with night-time awakening due to numbness in her thumb, index, and long fingers. On nerve conduction studies (NCS), what is the earliest electrodiagnostic finding characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased median nerve sensory conduction velocity
Explanation
The earliest finding in compressive neuropathies like carpal tunnel syndrome is focal demyelination, which manifests as prolonged sensory latencies and decreased sensory conduction velocities. Motor involvement and electromyography (EMG) changes (like fibrillations in the abductor pollicis brevis) occur later with axonal loss.
Question 5012
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old carpenter suffers a laceration over the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx of his index finger, severing the FDS and FDP tendons. This injury corresponds to which flexor tendon zone, historically referred to as 'no man's land'?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Zone II
Explanation
Zone II extends from the A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the FDS insertion (mid-middle phalanx). It contains both the FDS and FDP tendons within the tight fibro-osseous sheath. Historically called 'no man's land' because of the high rate of adhesions and poor outcomes following primary repair.
Question 5013
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old female is 3 months post-operative following open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture. She complains of severe, burning pain in the hand, out of proportion to the injury. On examination, the hand is edematous, erythematous, and hypersensitive to light touch (allodynia). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gabapentin and tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation
The patient presents with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Initial pharmacological management centers on neuropathic pain modulators like gabapentin (or pregabalin) and tricyclic antidepressants alongside intensive physical therapy. Vitamin C is used prophylactically at the time of injury, not primarily as an active treatment post-onset.
Question 5014
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In the pathophysiology of Dupuytren's disease, contracture of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is primarily driven by the involvement of which fascial structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spiral cord
Explanation
The spiral cord is primarily responsible for PIP joint contracture in Dupuytren's disease. It is formed by the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson's ligament, and it places the neurovascular bundle at risk due to its medial displacement during contracture.
Question 5015
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Stenosing tenosynovitis (Trigger Finger) is characterized by painful catching or locking of the digit during flexion and extension. The pathology is primarily caused by thickening and constriction at the level of which pulley?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A1 pulley
Explanation
Trigger finger is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon and the first annular (A1) pulley, which overlies the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. Surgical release involves dividing the A1 pulley while preserving the critical A2 and A4 pulleys to prevent bowstringing.
Question 5016
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old carpenter presents with swelling, erythema, and severe pain along the volar aspect of his index finger. According to Kanavel's criteria for pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis, which of the following is considered the most specific and earliest clinical sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform swelling, 2) flexed resting posture, 3) tenderness along the tendon sheath, and 4) pain with passive extension. Pain with passive extension is considered the earliest and most sensitive/specific sign of the condition.
Question 5017
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old female sustains a displaced distal radius fracture. Following closed reduction and casting, she develops severe pain and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following is a well-established iatrogenic risk factor for the development of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) or median neuropathy in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extreme wrist flexion and ulnar deviation in the cast (Cotton-Loder position)
Explanation
The Cotton-Loder position (extreme wrist flexion and ulnar deviation) dramatically increases carpal tunnel pressure, compresses the median nerve, and impairs venous return. This position is a major risk factor for acute carpal tunnel syndrome and the subsequent development of CRPS following distal radius fractures.
Question 5018
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) follows a predictable, progressive pattern of degenerative arthritis. Which joint is typically the last to be involved in the SLAC progression, characteristically remaining spared even in advanced stages?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radiolunate joint
Explanation
SLAC wrist arthritis follows a specific pattern: Stage I (radial styloid-scaphoid), Stage II (entire radioscaphoid facet), and Stage III (capitolunate joint). The radiolunate joint is characteristically spared from degenerative changes due to its concentric shape and the intact short radiolunate ligament preserving congruity.
Question 5019
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old carpenter complains of aching pain in the proximal forearm and numbness in the radial three-and-a-half digits. Sensation over the thenar eminence is diminished. Tinel's sign at the carpal tunnel is negative. Which structure is most likely compressing the median nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lacertus fibrosus
Explanation
The patient has Pronator Syndrome. Decreased sensation over the thenar eminence distinguishes it from carpal tunnel syndrome, as the palmar cutaneous branch arises proximal to the carpal tunnel.
Question 5020
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old male is diagnosed with a scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). Which of the following carpal articulations is typically the LAST to degenerate in the SNAC wrist progression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radiolunate
Explanation
In both SLAC and SNAC wrists, the radiolunate articulation is classically preserved until the very end stages of the disease. This is due to the congruent spherical articulation and absence of abnormal load shifting at the radiolunate fossa.
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