This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4961
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old female undergoes volar plating for a displaced distal radius fracture. Postoperatively, she develops the inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. She reports no pain but a sudden loss of movement. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon
Explanation
Attritional rupture of the Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) tendon is a known complication of volar plating of the distal radius. It typically occurs due to prominent hardware placed distal to the watershed line of the distal radius, causing mechanical abrasion on the FPL tendon over time. The sudden, painless loss of active IP flexion points to a tendon rupture.
Question 4962
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Following a primary flexor tendon repair in zone II of the hand, what is the predominant type of collagen produced by fibroblasts during the proliferative phase (days 7-21) of tendon healing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type III
Explanation
During the proliferative phase of tendon healing, fibroblasts rapidly synthesize Type III collagen, which is disorganized and mechanically weaker. This is later replaced by stronger, parallel-oriented Type I collagen during the prolonged remodeling phase.
Question 4963
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following is the primary source of nutrition for flexor tendons within Zone II of the hand (the 'no man's land')?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Synovial fluid diffusion
Explanation
In Zone II of the hand, flexor tendon nutrition is biphasic, relying on both extrinsic and intrinsic sources. However, synovial fluid diffusion (extrinsic) is the primary and most important source of nutrition for the flexor tendons in this avascular zone. The intrinsic vascular supply comes from the vincula, but diffusion via synovial fluid is predominantly responsible for tendon healing and maintenance, which is enhanced by early active motion protocols.
Question 4964
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In evaluating a patient with a traumatic nerve injury to the forearm, the electrodiagnostic study reveals innervation of the intrinsic hand muscles (such as the first dorsal interosseous) despite a complete transection of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. Which of the following anatomical variants is responsible for this finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Martin-Gruber anastomosis
Explanation
The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a common anatomical variant (present in about 15-30% of the population) involving a motor nerve connection from the median nerve (or its anterior interosseous branch) to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm. It carries motor fibers that ultimately supply the intrinsic muscles of the hand (typically ulnar-innervated). The Riche-Cannieu anastomosis occurs in the palm (deep ulnar branch to recurrent median branch). Marinacci is the reverse Martin-Gruber (ulnar to median in forearm). Berrettini is a sensory communication in the palm.
Question 4965
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old carpenter presents with a swollen, painful index finger 3 days after a puncture wound. Which of the following Kanavel's signs is typically the earliest and most reliable indicator of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Exquisite pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) flexed resting posture, 2) fusiform swelling (sausage digit), 3) tenderness along the flexor sheath, and 4) pain with passive extension. Exquisite pain with passive extension of the affected digit is widely considered the earliest, most sensitive, and most reliable clinical sign.
Question 4966
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During a nerve conduction study for suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, the neurologist identifies a Martin-Gruber anastomosis. This anatomic variant involves a neural communication in the forearm transferring fibers from the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve to the ulnar nerve
Explanation
A Martin-Gruber anastomosis is an anomalous neural connection in the forearm where motor fibers cross from the median nerve (often via the anterior interosseous nerve branch) to the ulnar nerve. This can result in intrinsic hand muscles being innervated by fibers that originated from the median nerve, complicating the clinical evaluation of nerve injuries.
Question 4967
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient sustains a laceration to the volar aspect of the hand, resulting in an inability to flex both the PIP and DIP joints of the index finger. The injury is located between the distal palmar crease and the middle of the middle phalanx. What zone of flexor tendon injury is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Zone II
Explanation
Zone II, often called 'no man's land', extends from the A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the insertion of the FDS on the middle phalanx. It contains both the FDS and FDP tendons within a tight fibro-osseous sheath.
Question 4968
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with severe numbness and tingling in the radial three and a half digits of her right hand, awakening her at night. Nerve conduction studies confirm severe carpal tunnel syndrome. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nocturnal volar splinting
Explanation
Pregnancy-induced carpal tunnel syndrome typically resolves postpartum. Nocturnal splinting is the safest and most appropriate initial management, with surgical release reserved for refractory cases or signs of severe motor denervation lasting after delivery.
Question 4969
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old woman sustains a volar-angulated extra-articular distal radius fracture (Smith's fracture). Following closed reduction and volar locked plating, the patient develops an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which tendon is most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
The Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) tendon is at high risk for irritation and rupture following volar plate fixation of distal radius fractures. This occurs especially if the plate is positioned too distally, projecting beyond the watershed line.
Question 4970
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Diagnosis of this condition is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Klumpke's palsy
Explanation
This is a case of obstetric brachial plexus injury involving the C8, T1 roots (Klumpke's palsy). Erb's palsy involves upper roots only. Combined nerve injuries can present in a similar fashion, however low ulnar and median nerve lesions will not have weakness of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor digitorum sublimis. History of a large baby, shoulder dystocia, and clavicle fracture point to difficult labor. The most common type of brachial plexus injury related to birth is Erb's palsy, which is usually associated with a breech presentation. Isolated Klumpke's palsy is quite rare and the involvement of C8 and T1 usually occurs as part of global plexus injury.
Question 4971
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. The level of the lesion in this patient is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Postganglionic lesion
Explanation
It is difficult to clinically differentiate between a pre- and postganglionic lesion of C8, T1 in a child. Absence of Horner's syndrome and hemi-diaphragmatic palsy in this case indicates that this is not a preganglionic lesion. The ability of the patient to hold his head suggests that the paravertebral muscles are functional, as is true in postganglionic lesions.
Question 4972
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as a clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to the fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Appropriate surgical management in this case is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Exploration and nerve grafting
Explanation
Neurotization is done for preganglionic lesions and has not been shown to produce successful results for lower root involvement. At 18 months, exploration and nerve grafting must be carried out. Neurolysis is reserved for cases in which recovery is partial or plateaus. Tendon transfers in children less than 3 years old do not work as well. Younger children do not cooperate well in rehabilitation. It is also difficult to decide upon the functioning motors for transfer.
Question 4973
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as a clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to the fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Reconstructive surgery includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Widening of first web space
Explanation
This patient has developed contractures of the first web space, which will not respond to passive stretching. Fusion of the MP joint is unnecessary, as tendon transfers will provide lateral and tip pinch as well as opposition.
Question 4974
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with hand weakness. On examination, she has no sensory deficit, decreased strength with pronation, and her elbow is at 90° of flexion and pulp-to-pulp contact on key pinch. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome
Explanation
Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome is due to compression of the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) in the forearm by lacertus fibrosus, flexor digitorum superficialis, or pronator teres. The AIN innervates the pronator quadratus, flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index finger, and the flexor pollicis longus (FPL). Anatomical variation exists where the AIN may innervate part of the flexor digitorum superficialis. In this patient, she has decreased pronation at 90° flexion, which relaxes the humeral attachment of the pronator from the pronator quadratus weakness. She also has pulp-to-pulp contact difficulty due to weakness of the FPL and FDP to the index finger.
Question 4975
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Operative indications for Dupuytren's contracture include:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal interphalangeal joint contracture of 30° or more
Explanation
As a general guideline the "table test" is used as an indication for operative intervention. If the patient cannot lay his/her hand flat onto a table, the disease has usually progressed to the point where surgery is required. A metacarpophalangeal joint contracture of 30° to 40° or a proximal interphalangeal joint contracture of 30° or more is an indication for surgery.
Question 4976
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old man presents with a short forearm and a hand deformity. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other congenital defects. The potential complications of lengthening are discussed, and the patient is advised against it. However, the elbow flexion contracture is corrected by gradual distraction. One year postoperatively, the patient has attained a 30° correction of the flexion deformity, which remains mobile. Now, he desires that his wrist deformity be corrected. The procedure of choice is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthrodesis
Explanation
Wrist arthrodesis is the best solution for this patient and his recurrent deformity because it provides a stable platform for grasp.
Question 4977
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 15-day-old boy presents with deformity of the right hand. The boy was delivered prematurely and underwent an urgent arterial switch for transposition of great vessels. The patient is in stable condition. He has a radial club hand, and because the radial head cannot be palpated, total absence of radius is suspected. The thumb is absent and the index finger has camptodactyly. The forearm is short compared to the left side, and the patient flexes his elbow upon stimulation. Spontaneous finger motion is also present. A thorough physical examination is performed and a set of investigations is ordered. The results are as follows: complete blood count 10,000 mcu/L; platelet 254×10^3 mcu/L; neutrophils 50%; Hb 14.2 mg/dL; lymphocytes 40%; Hct 45; and monocytes 10%. No renal abnormalities were noted on ultrasonogram of the abdomen. A radiograph of the spine is normal. Centralization will be performed on the patient. All of the following statements are true about centralization except:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The forearm must be aligned with the second metacarpal.
Explanation
In a centralization procedure, the forearm is aligned with the third metacarpal, not the second.
Question 4978
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old carpenter complains of numbness in his ring and small fingers, and progressive hand weakness. Examination shows intrinsic muscle wasting, a positive Froment's sign, and a positive Tinel's sign at the elbow. Which of the following anatomical structures is the most common site of compression for this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osborne's ligament
Explanation
The patient has cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar nerve compression at the elbow). The most common site of ulnar nerve entrapment in this region is the cubital tunnel retinaculum, also known as Osborne's ligament, which spans between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon.
Question 4979
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old manual laborer presents with dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis of the lunate with negative ulnar variance, but no carpal collapse (Lichtman Stage II Kienböck disease). What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?
In early-stage Kienböck disease (Lichtman Stage II or IIIA) in a patient with ulnar minus variance, a joint leveling procedure, such as a radial shortening osteotomy, is the procedure of choice. It decreases the mechanical load on the radiolunate joint, allowing potential revascularization of the lunate.
Question 4980
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating hand dexterity and difficulty buttoning his shirt. Physical exam reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and an inverted supinator reflex. These findings are most indicative of which underlying pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cervical spinal cord compression
Explanation
A positive Hoffmann's sign and inverted supinator reflex are upper motor neuron signs indicating cervical myelopathy. This presentation of "myelopathy hand" is classically seen with cervical spinal cord compression.
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