Menu

Question 4721

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old carpenter presents with worsening central dorsal wrist pain. MRI demonstrates avascular necrosis of the lunate. Radiographs reveal ulnar minus variance and lunate collapse, but no fixed carpal instability or scaphoid rotation (Lichtman Stage IIIA). What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Ulnar lengthening osteotomy
. Capitate-shortening osteotomy
. Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid (STT) arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

In Lichtman Stage IIIA Kienböck's disease with ulnar minus variance, joint leveling procedures are indicated to mechanically unload the radiolunate joint and redistribute forces to the radioscaphoid joint. Radial shortening osteotomy is the gold standard in this scenario. Ulnar lengthening is theoretically possible but is associated with a significantly higher nonunion rate. Proximal row carpectomy is reserved for later stages (Stage IV) with secondary carpal osteoarthritis.

Question 4722

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman with advanced Rheumatoid Arthritis suddenly loses the ability to actively extend her small and ring fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints. The tenodesis effect is absent for these digits. Radiographs demonstrate dorsal prominence of the distal ulna. The rupture of these tendons most likely occurred due to attrition over which of the following structures?

. Lister's tubercle
. Scaphoid osteophyte
. Pisiform
. Distal ulna (Caput Ulnae)
. Hook of hamate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal ulna (Caput Ulnae)


Explanation

This patient has Vaughan-Jackson syndrome, which is the sequential rupture of the extensor tendons in a rheumatoid hand, typically starting from ulnar to radial (first the Extensor Digiti Minimi, followed by the Extensor Digitorum Communis to the small and ring fingers). This attrition occurs due to a dorsally prominent and eroded distal ulna secondary to distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) destruction, clinically known as the caput ulnae syndrome.

Question 4723

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old construction worker complains of progressive cold intolerance, pain, and a bluish discoloration in his right ring and small fingers. The Allen test demonstrates sluggish blood return to the hand when the ulnar artery is released. Angiography shows 'corkscrew' tortuosity and an occlusion of the ulnar artery at the level of the wrist. This pathology is most strongly associated with repetitive trauma against which of the following carpal structures?

. Pisiform
. Tubercle of the trapezium
. Hook of the hamate
. Scaphoid waist
. Capitate head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hook of the hamate


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome (HHS). HHS is caused by repetitive blunt trauma to the hypothenar eminence (such as using the heel of the hand as a hammer). The ulnar artery is specifically vulnerable as it passes superficially over the hook of the hamate before forming the superficial palmar arch. The trauma leads to intimal damage, aneurysm formation, vasospasm, and/or thrombosis of the ulnar artery.

Question 4724

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old chef sustains a volar oblique amputation of his left index fingertip, resulting in a 1.5 cm soft tissue defect with exposed distal phalanx bone. The dorsal nail bed is largely intact. Which of the following local flap options is best suited to provide durable, sensate coverage for this specific defect?

. V-Y advancement flap (Atasoy)
. Cross-finger flap
. Moberg advancement flap
. Reverse flow homodigital island flap
. Kutler lateral advancement flap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cross-finger flap


Explanation

A cross-finger flap is the ideal choice for a volar oblique fingertip amputation with exposed bone. It provides durable palmar skin from the dorsum of the adjacent finger. A volar V-Y advancement flap (Atasoy) is best suited for transverse or dorsal oblique amputations. The Moberg volar advancement flap is reliable only for the thumb due to its independent dorsal blood supply, which prevents dorsal skin necrosis when the volar tissues are advanced.

Question 4725

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old male sustains a comminuted, Y-shaped intra-articular fracture of the base of his right thumb metacarpal after a fist fight. There are three large osseous fragments. What is the most widely accepted surgical management to restore joint congruity and stability in this classic Rolando fracture?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of the thumb ray
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and/or screws
. Ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition (LRTI)
. Primary carpometacarpal arthrodesis
. Trapeziectomy with hematoma distraction arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and/or screws


Explanation

A Rolando fracture is a 3-part (Y- or T-shaped) intra-articular fracture at the base of the first metacarpal. If the fragments are of sufficient size, Open Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF) with small plates and/or screws is the treatment of choice to restore the articular surface. If the fracture is highly comminuted into multiple small fragments, external fixation with limited internal fixation might be preferred. LRTI, arthrodesis, and trapeziectomy are treatments for advanced CMC arthritis, not acute fractures.

Question 4726

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient suffers a severe laceration of the median nerve at the antecubital fossa. During physical examination 3 months later, the patient unexpectedly demonstrates preserved function of several intrinsic hand muscles normally innervated by the ulnar nerve. This phenomenon is best explained by a Martin-Gruber anastomosis, which consists of motor nerve fibers crossing in which specific pattern?

. From the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm
. From the ulnar nerve to the median nerve in the proximal forearm
. From the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the palm of the hand
. From the ulnar nerve to the median nerve in the palm of the hand
. From the superficial radial nerve to the ulnar nerve at the wrist

Correct Answer & Explanation

. From the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm


Explanation

A Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a common anatomical variant (present in about 15% of limbs) where motor nerve branches cross from the median nerve (most commonly from the anterior interosseous nerve branch) to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm. These crossing fibers typically innervate intrinsic hand muscles (like the first dorsal interosseous). Riche-Cannieu anastomosis describes a connection between the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve in the hand.

Question 4727

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 24-year-old male presents with wrist pain 3 weeks after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a scapholunate angle of 75 degrees. The scaphoid appears volarly flexed (signet ring sign), and the lunate is dorsally angulated. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?

. Volar intercalated segment instability (VISI)
. Dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI)
. Perilunate dislocation
. Midcarpal instability
. Lunate dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation describes a scapholunate ligament tear leading to Dorsal Intercalated Segment Instability (DISI). In DISI, the uncoupled lunate extends dorsally (scapholunate angle > 60 degrees is abnormal, > 70 is definitive for DISI), while the scaphoid flexes volarly, creating a 'signet ring' appearance on the PA view due to its flexed posture. VISI occurs with lunotriquetral ligament injuries where the lunate abnormally flexes volarly.

Question 4728

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 40-year-old diabetic patient presents to the emergency department with a swollen, painful index finger 3 days after sustaining a puncture wound. You suspect pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Of Kanavel's four cardinal signs, which is generally considered the earliest and most sensitive indicator of this infection?

. Symmetric, fusiform swelling of the entire digit
. Tenderness along the anatomic course of the flexor tendon sheath
. Resting posture of the digit in slight flexion
. Exquisite pain with passive extension of the digit
. Erythema tracking up the volar forearm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exquisite pain with passive extension of the digit


Explanation

Kanavel's four cardinal signs for pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) flexed resting posture, 2) symmetric fusiform swelling, 3) tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) exquisite pain with passive extension. Pain with passive extension is widely regarded as the most sensitive and often the earliest clinical sign of flexor tendon sheath infection, as it actively stretches the inflamed synovial sheath.

Question 4729

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 35-year-old woman complains of excruciating, sharp pain in her right ring fingertip, which is markedly exacerbated by cold weather. On exam, there is exquisite point tenderness over the nail matrix and a faint bluish hue beneath the nail plate. Application of a proximal tourniquet to the arm significantly relieves the patient's fingertip pain. What is the name of this diagnostic test?

. Love's pin test
. Hildreth's test
. Froment's sign
. Wartenberg's sign
. Finkelstein's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hildreth's test


Explanation

The patient's symptoms are classic for a glomus tumor, a benign hamartoma of the neuromyoarterial glomus body. The classic triad includes cold hypersensitivity, paroxysmal severe pain, and pinpoint tenderness. Hildreth's test involves inflating a tourniquet proximally to induce ischemia; a positive test occurs when the ischemia temporarily relieves the severe pain of the glomus tumor. Love's pin test utilizes a paperclip or pin to localize the exquisite point tenderness.

Question 4730

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 50-year-old patient sustains a volar Barton's fracture, which is an intra-articular fracture-subluxation involving the volar rim of the distal radius. The carpus displaces volarly with the fracture fragment. The carpus remains securely tethered to this volar distal radius fragment primarily due to the intact attachment of which of the following ligaments?

. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
. Radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC)
. Interosseous scapholunate ligament
. Lunotriquetral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radioscaphocapitate ligament


Explanation

A volar Barton's fracture occurs when the volar rim of the distal radius shears off. The carpus invariably subluxates volarly with this fragment because the stout volar radiocarpal ligaments—primarily the radioscaphocapitate ligament and the long radiolunate ligament—remain securely attached to the avulsed volar marginal fragment. This critical ligamentous tethering necessitates anatomic reduction and buttress plating of the volar fragment to restore radiocarpal stability.

Question 4731

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A neonate is born following a difficult shoulder dystocia delivery requiring hyperabduction of the arm. The infant demonstrates a claw hand deformity, absent grasp reflex, and unilateral miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis. This presentation (Klumpke's palsy) is primarily caused by an injury to which nerve roots of the brachial plexus?

. C5 and C6
. C6 and C7
. C7 and C8
. C8 and T1
. C5, C6, and C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C8 and T1


Explanation

Klumpke's palsy is a lower brachial plexus injury typically caused by an excessive hyperabduction force. It primarily involves the C8 and T1 nerve roots. Clinically, it presents with a loss of intrinsic hand muscle function (claw hand), absent grasp reflex, and, importantly, Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) if the sympathetic fibers traveling with the T1 root are disrupted. Erb's palsy (C5-C6) presents with the 'waiter's tip' posture.

Question 4732

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During a primary repair of a lacerated flexor tendon in Zone II, the surgeon visualizes the intricate relationship between the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) and the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP). The anatomic region where the FDS tendon splits and its slips decussate to allow the FDP tendon to pass superficially is known as:

. The A2 pulley
. Vinculum longum
. Camper's chiasm
. The sagittal band
. Cleland's ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Camper's chiasm


Explanation

Camper's chiasm is the anatomic structure located in Zone II of the flexor tendon sheath where the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) tendon splits into two slips. These slips pass dorsally around the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) tendon and decussate (cross over) before inserting into the volar base of the middle phalanx. This allows the FDP to emerge superficially to insert on the distal phalanx.

Question 4733

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In the pathoanatomy of Dupuytren's disease, the pathologic central cord is primarily responsible for causing flexion contractures at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. This cord develops from the disease-induced thickening and shortening of which normal fascial structure?

. Natatory ligament
. Spiral band
. Lateral digital sheet
. Pretendinous band
. Grayson's ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pretendinous band


Explanation

In Dupuytren's disease, normal fascial bands become pathologic cords. The pretendinous band of the palmar aponeurosis thickens to become the pretendinous (central) cord, which is the primary structure responsible for metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint contractures. The spiral cord (derived from the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson's ligament) is primarily responsible for proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint contractures. The natatory ligament causes web space contractures.

Question 4734

Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 25-year-old elite tennis player complains of chronic, ulnar-sided wrist pain and clicking, notably during forearm pronation. Physical exam reveals a positive fovea sign and palpable instability of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). MRI arthrogram demonstrates a Palmer Class 1B tear of the Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC). Following a failed 3-month course of conservative management, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Ulnar shortening osteotomy
. Darrach procedure
. Arthroscopic or open repair of the TFCC to the ulnar fovea
. Sauvé-Kapandji procedure
. Arthroscopic central debridement of the TFCC (wafer procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic or open repair of the TFCC to the ulnar fovea


Explanation

A Palmer Class 1B tear is an acute, traumatic avulsion of the TFCC from its ulnar attachment (the fovea and/or base of the ulnar styloid). Because this peripheral region of the TFCC is highly vascularized (unlike the avascular central portion, which is Palmer 1A), it possesses excellent healing potential. When associated with DRUJ instability and refractory to conservative treatment, the gold standard is anatomic repair (arthroscopic or open) of the TFCC back to the ulnar fovea. Ulnar shortening is indicated for ulnar impaction syndrome, and salvage procedures (Darrach/Sauvé-Kapandji) are for end-stage DRUJ arthritis.

Question 4735

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old male presents with advanced Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) wrist arthritis. Radiographs demonstrate severe degenerative changes throughout the carpus. Which of the following articulations is classically spared from osteoarthritis in a SLAC wrist, even in late stages?

. Radioscaphoid joint
. Capitolunate joint
. Scaphotrapezialtrapezoid (STT) joint
. Radiolunate joint
. Lunotriquetral joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiolunate joint


Explanation

In a SLAC wrist, the radiolunate joint is classically spared because the spherical shape of the lunate maintains concentric articulation with the lunate fossa of the distal radius, distributing forces evenly despite carpal collapse. In contrast, the elliptical scaphoid fossa undergoes degenerative changes due to the abnormally flexed and subluxated scaphoid.

Question 4736

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

When performing open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture using a volar locking plate, placing the plate distal to the 'watershed line' significantly increases the risk of which of the following complications?

. Median nerve compression
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture
. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture
. Radiocarpal joint subluxation
. Ulnar artery pseudoaneurysm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture


Explanation

The watershed line is a transverse ridge that marks the distal volar margin of the pronator fossa. Placing a volar plate distal to this ridge causes hardware prominence, which can lead to attrition and subsequent rupture of the adjacent flexor tendons, most commonly the Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL).

Question 4737

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old carpenter presents with volar forearm and hand pain, along with paresthesia in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for differentiating Pronator Syndrome from Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

. Positive Phalen's test
. Atrophy of the abductor pollicis brevis
. Decreased sensation over the thenar eminence
. Nocturnal awakening due to hand pain
. Weakness of the flexor pollicis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased sensation over the thenar eminence


Explanation

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve arises approximately 5 cm proximal to the wrist crease and travels superficial to the transverse carpal ligament to supply sensation to the thenar eminence. Sensation in this area is spared in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome but diminished in more proximal median nerve compressions like Pronator Syndrome.

Question 4738

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 22-year-old rugby player sustains an avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon of the ring finger. Imaging and physical exam suggest a Leddy-Packer Type I injury. What is the defining anatomical characteristic and recommended timeframe for management of this specific injury type?

. Tendon retracted to the PIP joint; repair within 3 weeks.
. Tendon retracted into the palm; primary repair within 7-10 days.
. Avulsion with a large bony fragment caught at the A4 pulley; repair within 4 weeks.
. Tendon retracted into the palm; immediate two-stage tendon reconstruction.
. Tendon caught at the A2 pulley; delayed repair at 6 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tendon retracted into the palm; primary repair within 7-10 days.


Explanation

Leddy-Packer Type I injuries involve FDP retraction into the palm. Both the vincula longa and brevia are ruptured, completely compromising the tendon's blood supply. To prevent necrosis and severe contracture, primary repair must be performed within 7-10 days.

Question 4739

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 60-year-old female presents with severe pain at the base of the thumb. Radiographs are obtained to stage her basal joint arthritis using the Eaton-Littler classification. Which of the following radiographic findings specifically defines progression to Stage IV disease?
. Osteophytes greater than 2 mm
. Dorsal subluxation of the first metacarpal base by >30%
. Involvement of the scaphotrapezialtrapezoid (STT) joint
. Complete obliteration of the trapeziometacarpal joint space
. Hyperextension deformity of the metacarpophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Involvement of the scaphotrapezialtrapezoid (STT) joint


Explanation

The Eaton-Littler classification stages thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) osteoarthritis. Stage IV (pantrapezial arthritis) is defined by the progressive involvement of adjacent joints, specifically the scaphotrapezial joint (STT arthritis), distinguishing it from Stage III.

Question 4740

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 35-year-old mechanic sustains a puncture wound to the volar index finger. Two days later, he presents with a suspected pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Which of Kanavel's four cardinal signs is generally considered the most sensitive and earliest indicator of this infection?

. Fusiform (sausage-like) swelling of the digit
. Flexed resting posture of the digit
. Tenderness along the entire course of the flexor tendon sheath
. Severe pain with passive extension of the digit
. Erythema extending past the metacarpophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe pain with passive extension of the digit


Explanation

Of Kanavel's four cardinal signs, severe pain on passive extension is considered the most sensitive and earliest clinical finding of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis, occurring before frank fusiform swelling or marked resting flexion are fully established.