This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4521
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What is the primary arterial supply to the scaphoid that makes fractures of its proximal pole particularly susceptible to delayed union and avascular necrosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar carpal branch of the radial artery entering distally
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the distal pole and flows in a retrograde fashion to the proximal pole.
Question 4522
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she presents with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. This complication is most directly related to plate placement in relation to which anatomical landmark?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal to the pronator quadratus insertion
Explanation
Placement of a volar plate distal to the watershed line can cause prominence of the hardware. This frequently leads to attrition and spontaneous rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon.
Question 4523
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A new diagnostic imaging modality is being tested to detect scaphoid fractures. In a study of 200 patients (100 with true scaphoid fractures and 100 normal wrists), the test correctly identifies a fracture in 80 patients and correctly rules out a fracture in 90 patients. What is the sensitivity of this new imaging modality?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10%
Explanation
Sensitivity is defined as the proportion of actual positives that are correctly identified by the test (True Positives / [True Positives + False Negatives]). In this scenario, there are 100 true fractures. The test correctly identifies 80 (True Positives). The remaining 20 fractures were missed (False Negatives). Sensitivity = 80 / (80 + 20) = 80%.
Question 4524
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old male sustains a severe laceration to the volar wrist, completely transecting the ulnar nerve proximal to the Guyon's canal. Several months later, he presents with significant clawing of the ring and small fingers. Which of the following explains why a more distal injury would have resulted in even more severe clawing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of intrinsic muscle function combined with intact flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) function
Explanation
The 'ulnar paradox' occurs because a more proximal ulnar nerve lesion denervates both the intrinsic hand muscles and the ulnar half of the FDP. A distal lesion spares the FDP, allowing its unopposed action on the DIP joint, which causes a more pronounced claw deformity.
Question 4525
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old carpenter sustains a laceration to the volar aspect of his index finger at the level of the proximal phalanx, transecting both the FDS and FDP tendons. He undergoes primary flexor tendon repair. To permit a safe early active motion protocol postoperatively, the repair must rely primarily on which mechanical parameter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The type of knot tied (e.g., square vs. sliding)
Explanation
The tensile strength of a flexor tendon repair is directly proportional to the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site. A minimum of 4 strands (and ideally 4-6) is required to safely withstand the forces generated during an early active motion protocol.
Question 4526
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 40-year-old mechanic presents with a swollen, erythematous right index finger after sustaining a puncture wound 3 days ago. Which of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis is typically considered the earliest and most sensitive indicator of the infection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Pain with passive extension of the affected digit is considered the earliest and most sensitive sign of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. The other cardinal signs include fusiform swelling, resting in a flexed posture, and exquisite tenderness along the flexor sheath.
Question 4527
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old boy sustains a completely displaced supracondylar humerus fracture. Radiographs reveal the distal fragment is displaced posterolaterally. Based on this displacement pattern, which nerve is at the highest risk of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
In a posterolaterally displaced supracondylar fracture, the proximal fragment is driven anteromedially, placing the median nerve (specifically the anterior interosseous nerve branch) at greatest risk. Posteromedial displacement places the radial nerve at risk, while flexion-type fractures risk ulnar nerve injury.
Question 4528
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female sustains an undisplaced distal radius fracture and is treated non-operatively in a cast. Six weeks later, she complains of a sudden, painless inability to actively extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint. What is the primary pathomechanism of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avascular necrosis of the extensor pollicis longus muscle belly
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture is a classic complication of undisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures. It typically occurs 4-8 weeks post-injury due to a combination of mechanical attrition over Lister's tubercle and ischemia within the intact third dorsal compartment, secondary to hematoma and localized swelling.
Question 4529
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain and is diagnosed with a Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC). Radiographs show arthritis strictly limited to the radioscaphoid joint, with preservation of the midcarpal joint. Which stage of SNAC wrist does this represent, and what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage I; Radial styloidectomy and scaphoid nonunion takedown with grafting
Explanation
SNAC Stage I involves arthritis isolated to the radioscaphoid articulation (specifically between the radial styloid and the distal scaphoid fragment). Treatment for Stage I is typically a radial styloidectomy combined with bone grafting and fixation of the scaphoid nonunion. Progression to involve the scaphocapitate joint marks Stage II, requiring salvage procedures like PRC or four-corner fusion.
Question 4530
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old carpenter with persistent dorsal wrist pain is diagnosed with Kienböck's disease (Lichtman Stage II). Radiographs demonstrate ulnar negative variance of 3 mm. Which surgical intervention is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial shortening osteotomy
Explanation
In early-stage Kienböck's disease (Lichtman Stage II or IIIa) with ulnar negative variance, a joint-leveling procedure such as a radial shortening osteotomy is indicated. This mechanically unloads the lunate to halt disease progression. Capitate shortening or radial wedge osteotomies are preferred when variance is neutral or positive.
Question 4531
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old tennis player presents with ulnar-sided wrist pain. An MRI arthrogram reveals a tear of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) at its ulnar peripheral attachment without bony avulsion. According to the Palmer classification, what is this tear type, and is it generally amenable to direct primary repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Palmer 1A; No, debridement only
Explanation
Palmer 1B tears are traumatic tears of the peripheral ulnar attachment of the TFCC. Because this peripheral zone receives adequate vascular supply, these tears have excellent healing potential and are highly amenable to direct surgical repair. In contrast, 1A tears are central and avascular, requiring debridement.
Question 4532
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon notes a highly branched recurrent motor branch of the median nerve that directly pierces the transverse carpal ligament. According to the Lanz classification of median nerve variations, which anatomic group does this represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Group 1 (Extraligamentous)
Explanation
The Lanz classification describes variations of the recurrent motor branch. Group 1 is the normal extraligamentous course (recurrent branch loops around the distal edge). Group 2 is a subligamentous course. Group 3 is the transligamentous variant, where the motor branch pierces the flexor retinaculum, placing it at high risk during carpal tunnel release.
Question 4533
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In the digital flexor tendon sheath, which of the following annular pulleys are biomechanically the most critical to prevent tendon bowstringing and must be preserved or reconstructed during flexor tendon surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A1 and A3
Explanation
The A2 pulley (located over the proximal half of the proximal phalanx) and the A4 pulley (located over the middle third of the middle phalanx) are the most critical biomechanical components of the flexor pulley system. Sacrificing them leads to significant bowstringing of the flexor tendons and a severe loss of active interphalangeal joint motion.
Question 4534
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A patient presents to the emergency department with a swollen, acutely painful index finger after a puncture wound. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain on active extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform (sausage-like) swelling, 2) tenderness along the flexor sheath, 3) posture of the digit in slight flexion, and 4) severe pain on PASSIVE (not active) extension. Active motion is generally painful, but exquisite pain on passive extension is the hallmark sign.
Question 4535
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A skier presents with a traumatic abduction injury to the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) with a Stener lesion. Which anatomic structure is interposed between the torn UCL ends in a Stener lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus tendon
Explanation
A Stener lesion occurs when the completely avulsed distal end of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb MCP joint displaces superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This interposition mechanically blocks the UCL from returning to its anatomic insertion, preventing healing and establishing an absolute indication for surgical repair.
Question 4536
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During surgical fasciectomy for Dupuytren's contracture, the surgeon dissects out the spiral cord. The spiral cord characteristically displaces the neurovascular bundle in which direction, placing it at increased risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central, superficial, and proximal
Explanation
The spiral cord in Dupuytren's disease forms via the coalescence of the pretendinous band, spiral nerve, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson's ligament. As it pathologically contracts, it spirals around the neurovascular bundle, displacing the bundle centrally towards the midline, superficially towards the skin, and proximally, placing it at high risk during excision.
Question 4537
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient is evaluated in the clinic for an inability to make an 'OK' sign with the thumb and index finger. Neurological examination reveals normal sensation throughout the entire hand and digits. Which of the following muscles is primarily affected by this specific nerve palsy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) syndrome is a pure motor neuropathy that affects the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index and middle fingers, and the pronator quadratus. Weakness of the FPL and FDP prevents terminal IP joint flexion of the thumb and index finger, destroying the 'OK' sign. Sensation is spared because the AIN carries no cutaneous sensory fibers.
Question 4538
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic progressive wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid arthritis, but the capitolunate and radiolunate joints are preserved. According to the SNAC (Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse) classification, what is the optimal surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
Explanation
SNAC stage II involves radioscaphoid arthritis with preserved radiolunate and capitolunate joints. Since the capitate is intact and unaffected by arthritis, a four-corner fusion with scaphoid excision is an excellent option to preserve motion while addressing the arthritic radioscaphoid joint. PRC is relatively contraindicated if capitate arthritis is present (SNAC III), though it can be used in some Stage II cases; four-corner fusion is the classic standard answer for preserving the radiolunate articulation.
Question 4539
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 65-year-old female sustains a distal radius fracture. Closed reduction is performed. Which of the following radiographic parameters falls outside the acceptable criteria for non-operative management of a distal radius fracture in an active patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal tilt of 15 degrees
Explanation
Acceptable radiographic parameters for non-operative management of distal radius fractures typically include: radial height >9 mm, radial inclination >15 degrees, intra-articular step-off <2 mm, and sagittal tilt between 15 degrees volar and neutral (0 degrees). A dorsal tilt of 15 degrees is unacceptable and is associated with poor outcomes and altered carpal biomechanics, typically indicating a need for operative intervention.
Question 4540
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with base of thumb pain. Radiographs demonstrate Eaton-Littler Stage III trapeziometacarpal joint arthritis with a >30-degree hyperextension deformity of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. In addition to a ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition (LRTI), what concomitant procedure is highly recommended?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MCP joint capsulodesis or arthrodesis
Explanation
In the surgical management of advanced thumb CMC arthritis, addressing a concomitant MCP hyperextension deformity of >30 degrees is critical. Failure to correct this (via volar capsulodesis, EPB transfer, or MCP arthrodesis) leads to poor pinch strength and recurrent thumb metacarpal base subsidence after trapeziectomy/LRTI due to the persistent zigzag longitudinal collapse deformity.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.