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Question 4221

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 42-year-old male sustains a puncture wound to his index finger. Two days later, he presents with symmetric digit swelling, flexed resting posture, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain with passive extension. Which organism is the most common cause of this condition, and what is the definitive management?

. Streptococcus pyogenes / IV antibiotics alone
. Staphylococcus aureus / surgical irrigation and debridement
. Pasteurella multocida / amputation of the digit
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa / delayed primary closure
. Eikenella corrodens / outpatient oral antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Streptococcus pyogenes / IV antibiotics alone


Explanation

The patient exhibits Kanavel's four cardinal signs of acute pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common pathogen, and the presence of these signs dictates emergent surgical irrigation and debridement along with IV antibiotics.

Question 4222

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 28-year-old skier falls while holding a ski pole, forcibly abducting his thumb. Examination shows gross laxity of the thumb MCP joint with valgus stress in 30 degrees of flexion. MRI confirms a Stener lesion. What anatomical structure is interposed between the ruptured ends of the ligament?

. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
. Abductor pollicis brevis tendon
. Flexor pollicis brevis muscle belly
. Extensor pollicis brevis tendon
. Dorsal interosseous fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis


Explanation

A Stener lesion occurs when the distally avulsed ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) retracts and displaces superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This interposition prevents spontaneous anatomical healing and is an absolute indication for surgical repair.

Question 4223

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old competitive cyclist presents with isolated weakness of the dorsal interossei, but normal sensation in the little finger and normal hypothenar muscle strength. Compression of the ulnar nerve is suspected in Guyon's canal (Zone III). Which of the following structures forms the floor of Guyon's canal?
. Volar carpal ligament
. Transverse carpal ligament and pisohamate ligament
. Hook of the hamate
. Pisiform
. Palmaris brevis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse carpal ligament and pisohamate ligament


Explanation

Guyon's canal is bounded by the volar carpal ligament (roof), the transverse carpal ligament and pisohamate ligament (floor), the pisiform (ulnar border), and the hook of the hamate (radial border). Zone III contains only the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve, compression of which causes isolated motor deficits sparing the hypothenar muscles.

Question 4224

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Which of the following is the most common site of ulnar nerve compression leading to cubital tunnel syndrome?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (Osborne's ligament)
. Medial intermuscular septum
. Deep flexor pronator aponeurosis
. Ligament of Struthers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arcade of Struthers


Explanation

The most common site of ulnar nerve compression around the elbow is beneath the aponeurotic attachment of the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris, known as Osborne's ligament or the cubital tunnel retinaculum. Other potential compression sites include the arcade of Struthers, the medial intermuscular septum, and the deep flexor-pronator aponeurosis.

Question 4225

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old woman sustains a displaced, non-operatively managed distal radius fracture. Eight weeks later, she presents with inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint, secondary to tendon rupture around Lister's tubercle. In which extensor compartment does this ruptured tendon normally travel?

. First
. Second
. Third
. Fourth
. Fifth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First


Explanation

The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon travels in the third extensor compartment of the wrist. It courses around Lister's tubercle, which acts as a fulcrum. The EPL is particularly prone to attritional rupture following distal radius fractures, both operatively and non-operatively managed, due to vascular compromise or mechanical friction.

Question 4226

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 35-year-old carpenter suffers a deep laceration at the level of the proximal carpal tunnel, completely transecting the median nerve. Which of the following intrinsic muscles of the hand would lose its innervation as a direct result?

. Adductor pollicis
. Dorsal interossei
. Palmar interossei
. Opponens pollicis
. Deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis


Explanation

The median nerve provides motor innervation to the 'LOAF' muscles of the hand: the radial two Lumbricals, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and the superficial head of the Flexor pollicis brevis. The adductor pollicis, interossei, and the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Question 4227

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

You are reviewing axial CT imaging of the upper extremity. In the proximal forearm, the median nerve passes between the two heads of the pronator teres. Which of the following structures passes between the ulnar and humeral heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)?

. Radial artery
. Ulnar artery
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial artery


Explanation

The ulnar nerve enters the forearm by passing between the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris, forming the roof of the cubital tunnel known as Osborne's fascia.

Question 4228

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During a pre-operative imaging review for a severe cubital tunnel syndrome extending into the wrist, an axial MRI highlights Guyon's canal. Which structure forms the floor of this anatomic tunnel?

. Palmar carpal ligament
. Transverse carpal ligament
. Pisohamate ligament
. Volar radiocarpal ligament
. Deep palmar aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar carpal ligament


Explanation

Guyon's canal contains the ulnar nerve and artery. Its roof is formed by the palmar carpal ligament, and its floor is formed by the transverse carpal ligament and the pisohamate ligament.

Question 4229

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In evaluating an axial MRI of the wrist for ulnar tunnel syndrome, which anatomical structure serves as the floor of Guyon's canal?

. Palmar carpal ligament
. Transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum)
. Volar radiocarpal ligament
. Pisohamate ligament
. Deep palmar fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar carpal ligament


Explanation

The floor of Guyon's canal is formed by the transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum) and the pisohamate ligament. The roof is formed by the volar carpal ligament (palmar carpal ligament).

Question 4230

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During an in situ decompression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, the surgeon must release a distinct fascial band that bridges the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon. What is the name of this structure?

. Ligament of Struthers
. Arcade of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament
. Lacertus fibrosus
. Arcade of Frohse

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligament of Struthers


Explanation

Osborne's ligament forms the roof of the cubital tunnel proper, spanning between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon. The Arcade of Struthers is a more proximal fascial structure.

Question 4231

Topic: Nerve & Tendon



A deep laceration to the palm severs the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve. This injury will result in direct denervation of which of the following lumbrical muscles?

. 1st and 2nd lumbricals
. 3rd and 4th lumbricals
. All lumbricals
. 2nd and 3rd lumbricals
. None of the lumbricals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1st and 2nd lumbricals


Explanation

The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are innervated by the median nerve, while the 3rd and 4th lumbricals are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. Loss of ulnar nerve motor function results in clawing of the ring and small fingers.

Question 4232

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman underwent volar locking plate fixation for a distal radius fracture 6 months ago. She now presents with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. She reports a sudden pop without significant trauma. What is the most likely cause?

. Non-union of the distal radius
. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon
. Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) palsy
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture
. Trigger thumb

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-union of the distal radius


Explanation

Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is a recognized complication of volar plating of the distal radius. It typically occurs due to prominent hardware (especially the distal edge of the plate) irritating the tendon as it crosses the watershed line. Patients present with loss of active IP joint flexion of the thumb. A sudden 'pop' is characteristic of the tendon rupturing.

Question 4233

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 65-year-old female presents with wrist pain after a fall. Radiographs reveal a volar Barton's fracture of the distal radius. Which of the following describes the pathognomonic feature of this fracture pattern?

. Extra-articular fracture with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment
. Intra-articular fracture characterized by volar subluxation of the carpus with the volar articular fragment
. Isolated fracture of the radial styloid
. Metaphyseal comminution with extension into the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) without radiocarpal involvement
. Fracture-dislocation of the radiocarpal joint with intact volar ligaments and a dorsal shear fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extra-articular fracture with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment


Explanation

A volar Barton's fracture is a shear fracture of the volar lip of the distal radius articular surface. Its pathognomonic feature is that the carpus remains articulated with the fractured volar fragment and subluxates or dislocates volarly along with it. It typically requires open reduction and internal fixation with a volar buttress plate.

Question 4234

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 60-year-old female presents with a wrist injury after falling on an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a fracture of the volar lip of the distal radius with volar subluxation of the carpus along with the fracture fragment. Which of the following describes the fundamental mechanical instability of this fracture?

. Tension failure of the dorsal cortex
. Compression failure of the scaphoid fossa
. Shear failure of the volar articular margin
. Avulsion of the radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Axial impaction of the lunate into the radius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tension failure of the dorsal cortex


Explanation

A volar Barton's fracture is a shear fracture of the volar articular margin of the distal radius. The carpus subluxates volarly with the fracture fragment because the strong volar radiocarpal ligaments remain attached to the volar marginal fragment. Due to the shear forces and intrinsic instability, conservative management often fails, and volar buttress plating is the treatment of choice to resist the shear forces and maintain anatomic reduction.

Question 4235

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old male presents with chronic wrist pain and is diagnosed with a scaphoid nonunion demonstrating a humped back deformity and avascular necrosis of the proximal pole on MRI. Which of the following graft options is most appropriate to restore scaphoid length, correct the deformity, and address the avascular necrosis?

. Non-vascularized corticocancellous iliac crest graft
. 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery (1,2 ICSRA) vascularized bone graft
. Free vascularized medial femoral condyle (MFC) bone graft
. Distal radius cancellous autograft
. Pronator quadratus pedicled vascularized bone graft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-vascularized corticocancellous iliac crest graft


Explanation

A free vascularized medial femoral condyle (MFC) bone graft is highly effective for scaphoid nonunions with proximal pole AVN and structural collapse (humpback deformity). It provides both a robust blood supply to revascularize the necrotic pole and the necessary structural support (cortical bone) to correct the humpback deformity. Pedicled grafts like the 1,2 ICSRA often lack the structural integrity needed to prop open a collapsed scaphoid.

Question 4236

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

Madelung deformity results from a localized growth disturbance of the volar-ulnar aspect of the distal radius physis. This condition is characterized by a tethering anomalous ligament known as:

. Ligament of Testut
. Vickers ligament
. Osborne's ligament
. Struthers ligament
. Bouvier's ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligament of Testut


Explanation

Vickers ligament is an anomalous, thickened volar radiolunate ligament that tethers the volar-ulnar aspect of the distal radius. This tethering restricts normal physeal growth in that region, leading to the characteristic volar and ulnar tilt of the distal radius articular surface seen in Madelung deformity.

Question 4237

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 5-year-old sustains an injury to the elbow. Radiographs reveal a displaced lateral condyle fracture.

Which of the following is a classic long-term complication associated with an untreated nonunion of this fracture type?

. Cubitus varus deformity
. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
. Volkmann ischemic contracture
. Radiocapitellar synostosis
. Median nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus varus deformity


Explanation

Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture leads to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. This increasing valgus carrying angle causes stretch and friction on the ulnar nerve in the cubital tunnel over years, eventually resulting in tardy ulnar nerve palsy.

Question 4238

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 10-year-old boy sustains a medial epicondyle fracture of the humerus following a fall. Which of the following represents an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation?

. Displacement of 5 mm
. Displacement of 10 mm
. Ulnar nerve neurapraxia
. Incarceration of the fracture fragment within the joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Displacement of 5 mm


Explanation

Incarceration of the medial epicondyle fragment in the elbow joint is an absolute indication for operative intervention. Displacement parameters (e.g., >5-15 mm) and non-progressive ulnar nerve symptoms remain relative indications.

Question 4239

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 6-year-old boy sustains a completely displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture.

Following closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, he cannot flex his interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. AIN palsy presents with an inability to make an "OK" sign due to weakness in the flexor pollicis longus and the flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger.

Question 4240

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient sustains a deep laceration to the mid-palm, resulting in pulsatile bleeding from the deep palmar arch. Anatomically, the deep palmar arch is primarily formed by the terminal continuation of the radial artery. How does the radial artery anatomically enter the deep palm to form this arch?

. Passing superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
. Passing between the two heads of the first dorsal interosseous muscle.
. Passing deep to the adductor pollicis transverse head only without traversing interosseous muscles.
. Piercing the abductor digiti minimi.
. Passing through the anatomic snuffbox and directly through the carpal tunnel.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Passing superficial to the flexor retinaculum.


Explanation

The radial artery passes dorsally through the anatomic snuffbox, dives between the two heads of the first dorsal interosseous muscle, and then passes between the two heads of the adductor pollicis to enter the deep palm. There, it forms the deep palmar arch by anastomosing with the deep branch of the ulnar artery.