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Question 381

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 32-year-old carpenter sustains a small puncture wound to his left index finger. Two days later, he presents with uniform swelling of the digit, flexed resting posture, and excruciating pain with passive extension.

Which of the following is the fourth Kanavel sign typically seen in this condition?

. Erythema extending to the palm
. Tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath
. Palpable crepitus along the volar digit
. Loss of two-point discrimination
. Purulent drainage from the puncture site

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath


Explanation

The four classic Kanavel signs of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis are fusiform swelling, flexed resting posture, pain with passive extension, and tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath. Erythema, crepitus, and purulence are not considered part of the four classic signs.

Question 382

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient sustains a severe laceration to the proximal forearm, completely transecting the median nerve. However, clinical examination reveals intact intrinsic function of the hand typically supplied by the ulnar nerve, and unexpectedly, intact thenar muscle function. Which of the following anatomical anomalies best explains this physical examination finding?

. Riche-Cannieu anastomosis
. Marinacci communication
. Martin-Gruber anastomosis
. Bouvier's anomaly
. Linburg-Comstock anomaly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Martin-Gruber anastomosis


Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a communication between the median and ulnar nerves in the forearm. It typically carries motor fibers from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve, preserving thenar and intrinsic muscle function despite a proximal median nerve injury.

Question 383

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In the context of flexor tendon injuries of the hand, what anatomical landmarks define 'Zone II'?

. From the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) insertion to the distal phalanx
. From the distal palmar crease to the insertion of the FDS
. From the carpal tunnel to the distal palmar crease
. Within the boundaries of the carpal tunnel
. Proximal to the carpal tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. From the distal palmar crease to the insertion of the FDS


Explanation

Zone II (historically known as 'no man's land') extends from the A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the insertion of the FDS on the middle phalanx. Both flexor tendons travel within the narrow fibro-osseous sheath here, increasing the risk of post-repair adhesions.

Question 384

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old female presents with a dorsally displaced distal radius fracture. She is treated with open reduction and internal fixation utilizing a volar locking plate. What is the most common complication associated with this specific surgical approach and implant placement distal to the watershed line?

. Extensor pollicis longus rupture
. Flexor pollicis longus rupture
. Median nerve neuropathy
. Complex regional pain syndrome
. Nonunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor pollicis longus rupture


Explanation

Volar plating of the distal radius places the flexor tendons at risk, specifically the flexor pollicis longus (FPL). Placement of the plate prominent or distal to the watershed line significantly increases the risk of FPL rupture due to mechanical attrition.

Question 385

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient is undergoing surgical exploration for a fight bite over the third MCP joint. To best expose potential joint capsule violation and aid in thorough debridement and irrigation, what position should the finger be held in during the initial assessment?

. A. Full extension
. B. Neutral position, midway between flexion and extension
. C. Hyperextension
. D. Full flexion (clenched fist position)
. E. Passive resistance against the surgeon's manipulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. D. Full flexion (clenched fist position)


Explanation

Correct Answer: DFor a suspected 'fight bite' over an MCP joint, the finger should be held in full flexion (the clenched fist position) during initial assessment and irrigation. The injury typically occurs with the hand clenched in a fist, which causes the skin and extensor tendon to shift proximally relative to the MCP joint capsule. When the hand is then extended, the damaged joint capsule and any penetrating wound tract move distally and are no longer aligned with the initial skin laceration, effectively sealing off the wound and potentially trapping bacteria within the joint. Flexing the finger realigns the entry portal, allowing for thorough irrigation and exploration of the joint capsule. Full extension (A) or neutral (B) will obscure the primary injury tract and make it difficult to assess the joint capsule. Hyperextension (C) is anatomically incorrect for this purpose.

Question 386

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

Following surgical debridement and intravenous antibiotics for a septic MCP joint secondary to a fight bite, which of the following splinting positions is most appropriate for initial immobilization?

. A. MCP joints in full extension, IP joints in full flexion.
. B. MCP joints in approximately 70-90 degrees of flexion, IP joints in full extension, wrist in 20-30 degrees extension.
. C. MCP and IP joints in full extension.
. D. MCP and IP joints in full flexion.
. E. Wrist in full extension, all digits free for active range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B. MCP joints in approximately 70-90 degrees of flexion, IP joints in full extension, wrist in 20-30 degrees extension.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe 'intrinsic plus' or 'safe position' splint is generally recommended for hand immobilization following injury or surgery, especially for infections, to prevent joint contractures. This position involves placing the wrist in 20-30 degrees of extension, the MCP joints in approximately 70-90 degrees of flexion, and the IP joints in full extension. This position maintains the collateral ligaments of the MCP joints in their elongated state, preventing shortening contractures, and avoids shortening of the IP collateral ligaments. Full extension of MCPs (A, C) can lead to MCP collateral ligament shortening. Full flexion of IP joints (A, D) can lead to IP collateral ligament shortening. Active range of motion (E) is generally not indicated initially for a severe infection requiring immobilization.

Question 387

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old male presents with a persistent discharging sinus tract over the third metacarpal following a poorly managed fight bite 6 weeks ago. Plain radiographs reveal cortical irregularity and lucency of the metacarpal head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. A. Chronic tenosynovitis
. B. Septic non-union
. C. Osteomyelitis
. D. Reactive arthritis
. E. Chronic cellulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Osteomyelitis


Explanation

Correct Answer: CA persistent discharging sinus tract, especially following a human bite with radiographic evidence of cortical irregularity and lucency of the bone, is highly suggestive of chronic osteomyelitis. The fight bite can directly inoculate bacteria into the bone or lead to septic arthritis which then spreads to the bone. Chronic tenosynovitis (A) would primarily involve the tendon sheath and typically not present with bone changes. Septic non-union (B) would be if there was a fracture that failed to heal and became infected, but the question describes bone changes not specifically related to a fracture non-union. Reactive arthritis (D) is a sterile inflammatory arthritis following infection elsewhere. Chronic cellulitis (E) is a soft tissue infection that typically would not present with bone changes or a persistent sinus tract for this duration.

Question 388

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 25-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen, and red index finger following a fight bite 36 hours ago. The wound is over the MCP joint. During surgical exploration, the extensor digitorum communis tendon is found to be partially lacerated. What is the most appropriate management for the partially lacerated tendon in this acutely infected field?

. A. Primary repair of the tendon with non-absorbable sutures.
. B. Thorough irrigation and debridement of the tendon ends, and leave unrepaired for delayed secondary repair.
. C. Excise the lacerated portion of the tendon to prevent further spread of infection.
. D. Cover the tendon with a local fascial flap for protection.
. E. Administer high-dose corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B. Thorough irrigation and debridement of the tendon ends, and leave unrepaired for delayed secondary repair.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BIn an acutely infected wound, primary repair of a partially or completely lacerated tendon is generally contraindicated due to the high risk of infection of the repair site, leading to tendon necrosis, rupture, and adhesion formation. The most appropriate management is thorough irrigation and debridement of the tendon ends and surrounding tissue, followed by leaving the tendon unrepaired. Definitive repair, if necessary, should be delayed until the infection is completely resolved and the wound is clean. Excising the tendon (C) would result in significant functional deficit. Covering with a flap (D) is premature and risky in an infected field. Corticosteroids (E) are contraindicated in active infection.

Question 389

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 40-year-old carpenter presents with a swollen, painful index finger 3 days after a penetrating injury from a splinter. Which of the following is considered the most sensitive and earliest clinical sign of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?

. Fusiform swelling of the digit
. Flexed resting posture of the digit
. Tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath
. Pain with active flexion of the interphalangeal joints
. Pain with passive extension of the digit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain with passive extension of the digit


Explanation

Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis include fusiform swelling, a flexed resting posture, tenderness along the tendon sheath, and pain with passive extension. Exquisite pain with passive extension is considered the earliest and most sensitive sign of the condition.

Question 390

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 32-year-old mechanic presents with severe pain and swelling in his dominant right index finger 3 days after a puncture wound. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's classic cardinal signs of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?

. Flexed resting posture of the digit
. Fusiform swelling of the entire digit
. Erythema tracking proximally up the forearm
. Tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath
. Severe pain with passive extension of the digit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythema tracking proximally up the forearm


Explanation

Kanavel's four cardinal signs are fusiform swelling, flexed resting posture, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain with passive extension. Erythema tracking up the forearm is a sign of lymphangitis, not a specific cardinal sign of flexor tenosynovitis.

Question 391

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 22-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen, and erythematous wound over his right third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint after striking another individual in the mouth. In addition to Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, empirical antibiotic therapy must primarily cover which of the following organisms?

. Pasteurella multocida
. Eikenella corrodens
. Mycobacterium marinum
. Bartonella henselae
. Sporothrix schenckii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eikenella corrodens


Explanation

Human bites, or "fight bites," occurring over the MCP joint carry a high risk of deep space infection and septic arthritis. Eikenella corrodens is a fastidious Gram-negative rod uniquely associated with human oral flora, requiring treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanate or ampicillin-sulbactam.

Question 392

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 34-year-old dental hygienist presents with severe, throbbing pain and grouped vesicular lesions on the volar pad of her left index finger. The area is erythematous but lacks fluctuance. A Tzanck smear reveals multinucleated giant cells. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate incision and drainage in the emergency department
. Prescription for oral acyclovir, splinting, and observation
. Admission for intravenous vancomycin and operative debridement
. Local injection of corticosteroids and a compression dressing
. Amputation of the distal phalanx to prevent systemic spread

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prescription for oral acyclovir, splinting, and observation


Explanation

The patient has herpetic whitlow, an infection caused by the Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) common in healthcare workers. Incision and drainage is strictly contraindicated as it can lead to secondary bacterial infection and failure to heal; treatment consists of antivirals, dry dressings, and observation.

Question 393

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic 24 hours after sustaining a deep puncture bite to her dominant hand from her domestic cat. The hand is edematous, erythematous, and exquisitely tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary antibiotic choice for this injury?

. Cephalexin
. Clindamycin
. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
. Ciprofloxacin
. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amoxicillin-clavulanate


Explanation

Cat bites have a high rate of infection, most commonly caused by Pasteurella multocida. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is the first-line oral antibiotic of choice as it effectively covers Pasteurella, as well as Staph and Strep species.

Question 394

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A patient presents with a painful, tense, erythematous volar pad of the distal thumb, diagnosed as a felon. The surgeon plans an incision and drainage. To minimize the risk of digital nerve injury, painful scarring, and functional impairment, which surgical incision is most currently recommended?

. A "fish-mouth" incision extending completely around the tip of the digit
. A central volar longitudinal incision that does not cross the distal interphalangeal (DIP) crease
. A transverse incision directly over the distal flexion crease
. A bilateral mid-axial incision meeting at the apex
. A dorsal transverse incision just proximal to the eponychium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A central volar longitudinal incision that does not cross the distal interphalangeal (DIP) crease


Explanation

A volar longitudinal incision over the point of maximum fluctuance is currently the preferred approach for a felon, as it provides direct access to the septal compartments without jeopardizing digital nerves or causing tip necrosis. It must not cross the DIP flexion crease to prevent scar contracture.

Question 395

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old construction worker presents with a "collar button" abscess of the hand. In understanding the pathophysiology and surgical approach to this infection, how does the purulence classically spread?

. From the midpalmar space to the thenar space via the flexor retinaculum
. Through the lumbrical canal into the forearm via the space of Parona
. From the volar subfascial web space to the dorsal subcutaneous space via the natatory ligaments
. From the flexor tendon sheath directly into the distal interphalangeal joint
. From the paronychia into the terminal phalanx causing osteomyelitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. From the volar subfascial web space to the dorsal subcutaneous space via the natatory ligaments


Explanation

A collar button abscess is a web space infection that forms a dual compartment "dumbbell" shape. It spreads from the volar subfascial space to the dorsal subcutaneous space via the pathways around the natatory ligaments and superficial transverse metacarpal ligaments.

Question 396

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 48-year-old diabetic male develops a severe deep space infection of the hand diagnosed as a "horseshoe abscess." This unique pattern of infection occurs due to direct communication between which two synovial spaces?

. The thenar space and the midpalmar space
. The flexor tendon sheaths of the thumb (radial bursa) and the small finger (ulnar bursa)
. The flexor sheaths of the index and long fingers
. The subaponeurotic space and the subtendinous space
. The radiocarpal joint and the distal radioulnar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The flexor tendon sheaths of the thumb (radial bursa) and the small finger (ulnar bursa)


Explanation

A horseshoe abscess occurs when purulence spreads between the radial bursa (which envelops the flexor pollicis longus of the thumb) and the ulnar bursa (which envelops the flexor tendons of the small finger) via their proximal communication in the space of Parona.

Question 397

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 50-year-old bartender presents with bilateral swelling, induration, and loss of the cuticle around multiple fingernails, present for over 3 months. The condition is refractory to oral antibiotics. What is the most likely dominant pathogen responsible for this chronic paronychia?

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Candida albicans
. Streptococcus pyogenes
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Herpes simplex virus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Candida albicans


Explanation

While acute paronychia is usually bacterial (S. aureus), chronic paronychia is classically associated with prolonged moisture exposure and fungal infection, most commonly Candida albicans. Treatment involves keeping hands dry, topical antifungals/steroids, or surgical marsupialization if refractory.

Question 398

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient presents with swelling and severe tenderness over the central palm, with loss of the normal palmar concavity, indicative of a midpalmar space infection. What specific anatomical structure forms the radial border of the midpalmar space, separating it from the thenar space?

. The transverse carpal ligament
. The midpalmar (oblique) septum, extending to the third metacarpal
. The hypothenar septum, extending to the fifth metacarpal
. The adductor pollicis fascia
. The flexor pollicis longus sheath

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The midpalmar (oblique) septum, extending to the third metacarpal


Explanation

The deep spaces of the hand are separated by facial septa. The midpalmar space is separated from the thenar space radially by the midpalmar (or oblique) septum, which inserts firmly onto the fascia of the third metacarpal.

Question 399

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 33-year-old carpenter presents with a swollen, painful index finger 3 days after a penetrating wood splinter injury. Examination reveals fusiform swelling, the finger held in slight flexion, pain on passive extension, and tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath. What is the standard, minimally invasive surgical approach for irrigation of this infection?

. Mid-lateral incisions over the proximal and distal phalanges
. A single longitudinal volar incision over the entire digit
. Z-plasty incisions on the volar aspect of the digit
. A proximal incision at the A1 pulley and a distal incision at the A5 pulley
. Transverse incisions across the distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A proximal incision at the A1 pulley and a distal incision at the A5 pulley


Explanation

Acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis is traditionally managed with antibiotics and closed sheath irrigation. The standard technique utilizes a proximal incision at the A1 pulley and a distal incision at the A5 pulley to flush the flexor sheath with saline.

Question 400

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 28-year-old male presents with a 1 cm laceration over the 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint. He admits to punching someone in the mouth 2 days ago. The joint is swollen and erythematous. What is the most likely associated responsible organism and the appropriate empiric outpatient oral antibiotic?

. Pasteurella multocida; Ciprofloxacin
. Eikenella corrodens; Amoxicillin-clavulanate
. Staphylococcus aureus; Cephalexin
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Cefepime
. Mycobacterium marinum; Clarithromycin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eikenella corrodens; Amoxicillin-clavulanate


Explanation

"Fight bites" over the MCP joint carry a high risk of septic arthritis and are classic for human oral flora, prominently Eikenella corrodens. Amoxicillin-clavulanate provides appropriate broad-spectrum empiric coverage for this organism alongside Staph and Strep.