This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3881
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Which of the following prophylactic regimens is supported by prospective randomized controlled trials to reduce the risk of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (Algodystrophy) following a distal radius fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days
Explanation
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) at a dose of 500 mg daily for 50 days has been shown in randomized studies (e.g., Zollinger et al.) to significantly reduce the incidence of CRPS following distal radius fractures.
Question 3882
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old female presents 6 weeks after non-operative management of a distal radius fracture. She describes severe burning pain out of proportion to the injury, alongside stiffness and shiny skin changes.
Which of the following prophylactic medications, if given at the time of injury, has been shown to reduce the incidence of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vitamin C 500mg daily
Explanation
The patient has Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS/Algodystrophy). Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days following a distal radius fracture has been shown in some studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing CRPS.
Question 3883
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old female sustained a minor crush injury to her hand three months ago. She now presents with severe, burning pain that is disproportionate to the inciting event, significant allodynia, altered skin color, and asymmetric sweating.
She is diagnosed with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following clinical features explicitly differentiates CRPS Type II from CRPS Type I?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The presence of a verifiable major peripheral nerve injury
Explanation
CRPS is divided into Type I (formerly Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy) and Type II (formerly Causalgia). The distinguishing factor is that CRPS Type II is associated with a distinct, documented major peripheral nerve injury, whereas Type I occurs without one.
Question 3884
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old asymptomatic female is found to have an incidental well-circumscribed, purely radiolucent lesion with internal stippled calcification in the proximal phalanx of her ring finger following a radiograph taken for a minor sprain. There is no cortical breakthrough or soft tissue extension. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation with serial radiographs
Explanation
The lesion described is an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. In an asymptomatic patient without signs of an impending pathologic fracture, observation with periodic radiographs is the appropriate management.
Question 3885
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old woman presents 6 weeks post-distal radius fracture with severe, disproportionate hand pain, diffuse swelling, and shiny, hypersensitive skin.
Which of the following is an evidence-based pharmacologic prophylactic measure that has been shown to reduce the incidence of this specific syndrome following distal radius fractures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vitamin C 500mg daily for 50 days
Explanation
Vitamin C (500mg daily for 50 days) has been demonstrated in several studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a distal radius fracture.
Question 3886
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 52-year-old female presents with severe, burning hand pain, swelling, and shiny skin 10 weeks after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture.
According to the Budapest Criteria, which of the following is an absolute requirement for the clinical diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continuing pain that is disproportionate to any inciting event
Explanation
The Budapest Criteria require the presence of continuing pain disproportionate to the inciting event for a clinical diagnosis of CRPS. Patients must also report at least one symptom in three of four categories (sensory, vasomotor, sudomotor/edema, motor/trophic) and display at least one sign in two of the same categories.
Question 3887
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old woman presents 3 months after a conservatively managed distal radius fracture with severe hand pain, hyperalgesia, swelling, and shiny skin.
A triple-phase bone scan is ordered to aid in the diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following bone scan findings is most characteristic of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases, with focally increased periarticular uptake in the delayed phase.
Explanation
A triple-phase bone scan in CRPS classically demonstrates increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases due to autonomic dysregulation. The delayed phase typically shows intensely increased periarticular uptake, distinguishing it from simple disuse osteopenia.
Question 3888
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient presents with a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa. Palpation of the mass elicits paresthesias radiating to the plantar aspect of the foot. Which of the following signs is being demonstrated, indicating a neural origin of the tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tinel's sign
Explanation
Tinel's sign over a soft tissue mass indicates that the tumor involves a peripheral nerve. Tapping or palpating the mass mechanically stimulates the nerve, causing distal paresthesias in the nerve's distribution.
Question 3889
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A clinical trial comparing two internal fixation methods for distal radius fractures concludes there is no statistically significant difference in functional outcomes (p = 0.15). However, a true clinical difference does exist in the population. What type of statistical error has occurred, and what parameter is directly responsible for it?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II error, influenced by inadequate sample size (low power)
Explanation
Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false (i.e., missing a true difference) is a Type II (beta) error. The probability of making a Type II error is denoted by beta. The power of a study is 1 - beta. The most common cause of a Type II error is inadequate statistical power due to a sample size that is too small to detect the existing difference.
Question 3890
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Following a traumatic median nerve transection, Wallerian degeneration occurs distal to the injury site. Which cell type is primarily responsible for clearing the myelin debris in the peripheral nervous system to allow for subsequent axonal regeneration?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Microglia
Explanation
In the peripheral nervous system, Wallerian degeneration involves the breakdown of the axon and myelin distal to the injury. Schwann cells initially help degrade myelin and subsequently recruit macrophages. Macrophages are the primary cells responsible for phagocytizing and clearing the myelin debris, creating an environment permissive for axonal growth.
Question 3891
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A randomized controlled trial comparing two surgical techniques for distal radius fractures finds no statistically significant difference in grip strength at 1 year (p = 0.15). However, a true difference actually exists in the population. Which of the following concepts describes this study's failure to detect the true difference?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II error
Explanation
A Type II error (beta error) occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesisโin this case, failing to detect a true difference that exists in reality. This is often due to an inadequate sample size, leading to low statistical power (Power = 1 - beta). A Type I error (alpha error) is the false positive conclusion that a difference exists when it actually does not.
Question 3892
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In Zone II flexor tendon repairs of the hand, preservation of the vincula is heavily emphasized to optimize intrinsic healing. The vincula brevia to the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) is located near which of the following anatomical structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Base of the distal phalanx
Explanation
The blood supply to the flexor tendons in the digital sheath relies on both synovial diffusion and vascular perfusion via the vincula. The vincula brevia to the FDP is located near its insertion at the base of the distal phalanx. The vincula longa of the FDP arises near the proximal interphalangeal joint.
Question 3893
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old female with severe, long-standing carpal tunnel syndrome undergoes electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies (NCS). Which of the following specific findings on EMG confirms active axonal loss and ongoing muscle denervation rather than simple demyelination?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of fibrillation potentials
Explanation
Nerve conduction studies (NCS) typically detect demyelination (showing increased latencies and decreased conduction velocities). EMG, which involves inserting a needle into the muscle, is used to detect axonal injury. The presence of fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves on EMG indicates active denervation of the muscle fibers, implying severe nerve compression causing axonal loss.
Question 3894
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old carpenter lacerates his index finger at the level of the proximal phalanx, resulting in both flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and profundus (FDP) transection (Zone II injury). Primary repair is planned. Blood supply to the flexor tendons within this specific zone is primarily provided by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vincula brevis and longa
Explanation
In flexor tendon Zone II (from the A1 pulley to the FDS insertion), the tendons are enclosed in a synovial sheath. The primary blood supply to the tendons in this relatively avascular zone comes dorsally through the vincula brevis and longa.
Question 3895
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 25-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger after grabbing an opponent's jersey. Radiographs
reveal a large bony avulsion fragment located at the level of the A4 pulley. Based on the Leddy-Packer classification, what type of flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type 3
Explanation
The Leddy-Packer classification for FDP avulsions (Jersey finger): Type 1 describes retraction into the palm (blood supply disrupted, requires early repair). Type 2 retracts to the level of the PIP joint, held by the intact vincula. Type 3 is characterized by a large bony avulsion fragment that catches at the A4 pulley, preventing further proximal retraction.
Question 3896
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 40-year-old clerical worker is diagnosed with severe, recalcitrant cubital tunnel syndrome
. Intraoperatively, the ulnar nerve is found to be compressed precisely where it passes between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). What is the specific eponymous anatomical structure that forms the roof of this compression site?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osborne's ligament
Explanation
Osborne's ligament, or the cubital tunnel retinaculum, forms the roof of the cubital tunnel. It stretches from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon, spanning the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). The Arcade of Struthers is a fascial band located more proximally (about 8 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle) where the ulnar nerve pierces the medial intermuscular septum.
Question 3897
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old carpenter sustains a laceration over the volar aspect of his proximal phalanx, resulting in a Zone II flexor tendon injury. What is the primary source of nutrition to the flexor tendons in this specific zone?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vincula longa and brevia along with synovial diffusion
Explanation
Flexor tendons in Zone II receive nutrition through a dual mechanism: synovial diffusion, which provides the majority, and vascular perfusion via the vincula (longa and brevia).
Question 3898
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with a laceration over the volar aspect of the proximal phalanx of the index finger. Both the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) are severed. According to the Verdan classification, which zone of injury is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Zone II
Explanation
Zone II extends from the proximal A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the FDS insertion at the middle phalanx. It is historically known as "no man's land" due to poor healing outcomes from tendon adhesions.
Question 3899
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. What is the most common anatomical variation of this branch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extraligamentous
Explanation
The most common anatomical variation of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve is extraligamentous with recurrent branching (approx 50-80%). It exits distal to the transverse carpal ligament and curves back to innervate the thenar muscles.
Question 3900
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an extensile posterior approach utilizing an olecranon osteotomy for a comminuted distal humerus fracture (AO/OTA 13C3), the surgeon isolates the ulnar nerve. Which vascular structure typically accompanies the ulnar nerve as it passes posterior to the medial epicondyle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior ulnar collateral artery
Explanation
The superior ulnar collateral artery branches from the brachial artery and pierces the medial intermuscular septum to accompany the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle.
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