Menu

Question 3881

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

Which of the following prophylactic regimens is supported by prospective randomized controlled trials to reduce the risk of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (Algodystrophy) following a distal radius fracture?

. Vitamin D 1000 IU daily for 3 months
. Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days
. Calcium carbonate 1200 mg daily for 6 weeks
. Gabapentin 300 mg TID for 4 weeks
. Oral Prednisone 10 mg daily for 2 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days


Explanation

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) at a dose of 500 mg daily for 50 days has been shown in randomized studies (e.g., Zollinger et al.) to significantly reduce the incidence of CRPS following distal radius fractures.

Question 3882

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 45-year-old female presents 6 weeks after non-operative management of a distal radius fracture. She describes severe burning pain out of proportion to the injury, alongside stiffness and shiny skin changes.

Which of the following prophylactic medications, if given at the time of injury, has been shown to reduce the incidence of this condition?

. Oral steroids
. NSAIDs
. Bisphosphonates
. Vitamin C 500mg daily
. Gabapentin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vitamin C 500mg daily


Explanation

The patient has Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS/Algodystrophy). Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days following a distal radius fracture has been shown in some studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing CRPS.

Question 3883

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old female sustained a minor crush injury to her hand three months ago. She now presents with severe, burning pain that is disproportionate to the inciting event, significant allodynia, altered skin color, and asymmetric sweating.

She is diagnosed with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following clinical features explicitly differentiates CRPS Type II from CRPS Type I?

. The presence of autonomic dysfunction
. The presence of a verifiable major peripheral nerve injury
. A positive response to sympathetic ganglion block
. The degree of patchy periarticular osteopenia on radiographs
. The manifestation of symptoms exclusively in the lower extremity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The presence of a verifiable major peripheral nerve injury


Explanation

CRPS is divided into Type I (formerly Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy) and Type II (formerly Causalgia). The distinguishing factor is that CRPS Type II is associated with a distinct, documented major peripheral nerve injury, whereas Type I occurs without one.

Question 3884

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 35-year-old asymptomatic female is found to have an incidental well-circumscribed, purely radiolucent lesion with internal stippled calcification in the proximal phalanx of her ring finger following a radiograph taken for a minor sprain. There is no cortical breakthrough or soft tissue extension. What is the most appropriate management?

. Wide en bloc resection and structural bone grafting
. Ray amputation of the affected digit
. Intralesional curettage, phenolization, and bone grafting
. Observation with serial radiographs
. Preoperative radiation therapy followed by marginal excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with serial radiographs


Explanation

The lesion described is an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. In an asymptomatic patient without signs of an impending pathologic fracture, observation with periodic radiographs is the appropriate management.

Question 3885

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman presents 6 weeks post-distal radius fracture with severe, disproportionate hand pain, diffuse swelling, and shiny, hypersensitive skin.

Which of the following is an evidence-based pharmacologic prophylactic measure that has been shown to reduce the incidence of this specific syndrome following distal radius fractures?

. Oral bisphosphonates for 3 months
. Gabapentin 300mg TID
. Vitamin C 500mg daily for 50 days
. Amitriptyline 25mg nightly
. Propranolol 10mg twice daily

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vitamin C 500mg daily for 50 days


Explanation

Vitamin C (500mg daily for 50 days) has been demonstrated in several studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a distal radius fracture.

Question 3886

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 52-year-old female presents with severe, burning hand pain, swelling, and shiny skin 10 weeks after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture.

According to the Budapest Criteria, which of the following is an absolute requirement for the clinical diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

. Continuing pain that is disproportionate to any inciting event
. A positive triple-phase bone scan showing periarticular uptake
. Relief of symptoms following a sympathetic ganglion block
. Presence of a documented nerve injury
. Significant improvement with high-dose vitamin C supplementation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continuing pain that is disproportionate to any inciting event


Explanation

The Budapest Criteria require the presence of continuing pain disproportionate to the inciting event for a clinical diagnosis of CRPS. Patients must also report at least one symptom in three of four categories (sensory, vasomotor, sudomotor/edema, motor/trophic) and display at least one sign in two of the same categories.

Question 3887

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old woman presents 3 months after a conservatively managed distal radius fracture with severe hand pain, hyperalgesia, swelling, and shiny skin.

A triple-phase bone scan is ordered to aid in the diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following bone scan findings is most characteristic of this condition?

. Decreased uptake in the flow phase with increased periarticular uptake in the delayed phase.
. Increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases, with focally increased periarticular uptake in the delayed phase.
. Normal flow and blood pool phases with decreased diffuse uptake in the delayed phase.
. Increased flow phase uptake with cold spots in the periarticular regions on the delayed phase.
. Decreased diffuse uptake across all three phases compared to the contralateral limb.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases, with focally increased periarticular uptake in the delayed phase.


Explanation

A triple-phase bone scan in CRPS classically demonstrates increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases due to autonomic dysregulation. The delayed phase typically shows intensely increased periarticular uptake, distinguishing it from simple disuse osteopenia.

Question 3888

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient presents with a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa. Palpation of the mass elicits paresthesias radiating to the plantar aspect of the foot. Which of the following signs is being demonstrated, indicating a neural origin of the tumor?

. Hoffmann's sign
. Phalen's sign
. Tinel's sign
. Mulder's sign
. Valleix's phenomenon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tinel's sign


Explanation

Tinel's sign over a soft tissue mass indicates that the tumor involves a peripheral nerve. Tapping or palpating the mass mechanically stimulates the nerve, causing distal paresthesias in the nerve's distribution.

Question 3889

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A clinical trial comparing two internal fixation methods for distal radius fractures concludes there is no statistically significant difference in functional outcomes (p = 0.15). However, a true clinical difference does exist in the population. What type of statistical error has occurred, and what parameter is directly responsible for it?

. Type I error, influenced directly by an alpha level set too high
. Type I error, influenced by an inappropriately large sample size
. Type II error, influenced directly by setting a high alpha level
. Type II error, influenced by inadequate sample size (low power)
. Confounding error, influenced by lack of proper patient randomization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II error, influenced by inadequate sample size (low power)


Explanation

Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false (i.e., missing a true difference) is a Type II (beta) error. The probability of making a Type II error is denoted by beta. The power of a study is 1 - beta. The most common cause of a Type II error is inadequate statistical power due to a sample size that is too small to detect the existing difference.

Question 3890

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Following a traumatic median nerve transection, Wallerian degeneration occurs distal to the injury site. Which cell type is primarily responsible for clearing the myelin debris in the peripheral nervous system to allow for subsequent axonal regeneration?

. Astrocytes
. Microglia
. Schwann cells and macrophages
. Oligodendrocytes
. Fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Microglia


Explanation

In the peripheral nervous system, Wallerian degeneration involves the breakdown of the axon and myelin distal to the injury. Schwann cells initially help degrade myelin and subsequently recruit macrophages. Macrophages are the primary cells responsible for phagocytizing and clearing the myelin debris, creating an environment permissive for axonal growth.

Question 3891

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A randomized controlled trial comparing two surgical techniques for distal radius fractures finds no statistically significant difference in grip strength at 1 year (p = 0.15). However, a true difference actually exists in the population. Which of the following concepts describes this study's failure to detect the true difference?

. Type I error
. Type II error
. Selection bias
. Recall bias
. Confounding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II error


Explanation

A Type II error (beta error) occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesisโ€”in this case, failing to detect a true difference that exists in reality. This is often due to an inadequate sample size, leading to low statistical power (Power = 1 - beta). A Type I error (alpha error) is the false positive conclusion that a difference exists when it actually does not.

Question 3892

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In Zone II flexor tendon repairs of the hand, preservation of the vincula is heavily emphasized to optimize intrinsic healing. The vincula brevia to the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) is located near which of the following anatomical structures?

. Base of the proximal phalanx
. Mid-shaft of the middle phalanx
. Insertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)
. Base of the distal phalanx
. Metacarpal neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Base of the distal phalanx


Explanation

The blood supply to the flexor tendons in the digital sheath relies on both synovial diffusion and vascular perfusion via the vincula. The vincula brevia to the FDP is located near its insertion at the base of the distal phalanx. The vincula longa of the FDP arises near the proximal interphalangeal joint.

Question 3893

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old female with severe, long-standing carpal tunnel syndrome undergoes electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies (NCS). Which of the following specific findings on EMG confirms active axonal loss and ongoing muscle denervation rather than simple demyelination?

. Increased sensory latency
. Decreased motor conduction velocity
. Prolonged distal motor latency
. Presence of fibrillation potentials
. Increased amplitude of sensory nerve action potentials

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of fibrillation potentials


Explanation

Nerve conduction studies (NCS) typically detect demyelination (showing increased latencies and decreased conduction velocities). EMG, which involves inserting a needle into the muscle, is used to detect axonal injury. The presence of fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves on EMG indicates active denervation of the muscle fibers, implying severe nerve compression causing axonal loss.

Question 3894

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old carpenter lacerates his index finger at the level of the proximal phalanx, resulting in both flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and profundus (FDP) transection (Zone II injury). Primary repair is planned. Blood supply to the flexor tendons within this specific zone is primarily provided by which of the following structures?

. Direct branches of the proper digital arteries
. Paratenon vessels
. Central longitudinal vessels of the tendon
. Vincula brevis and longa
. Lumbrical muscle belly vessels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vincula brevis and longa


Explanation

In flexor tendon Zone II (from the A1 pulley to the FDS insertion), the tendons are enclosed in a synovial sheath. The primary blood supply to the tendons in this relatively avascular zone comes dorsally through the vincula brevis and longa.

Question 3895

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 25-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger after grabbing an opponent's jersey. Radiographs

reveal a large bony avulsion fragment located at the level of the A4 pulley. Based on the Leddy-Packer classification, what type of flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion is this?

. Type 1
. Type 2
. Type 3
. Type 4
. Type 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type 3


Explanation

The Leddy-Packer classification for FDP avulsions (Jersey finger): Type 1 describes retraction into the palm (blood supply disrupted, requires early repair). Type 2 retracts to the level of the PIP joint, held by the intact vincula. Type 3 is characterized by a large bony avulsion fragment that catches at the A4 pulley, preventing further proximal retraction.

Question 3896

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 40-year-old clerical worker is diagnosed with severe, recalcitrant cubital tunnel syndrome

. Intraoperatively, the ulnar nerve is found to be compressed precisely where it passes between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). What is the specific eponymous anatomical structure that forms the roof of this compression site?

. Struthers' ligament
. Arcade of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament
. Lacertus fibrosus
. Arcade of Frohse

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osborne's ligament


Explanation

Osborne's ligament, or the cubital tunnel retinaculum, forms the roof of the cubital tunnel. It stretches from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon, spanning the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). The Arcade of Struthers is a fascial band located more proximally (about 8 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle) where the ulnar nerve pierces the medial intermuscular septum.

Question 3897

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 24-year-old carpenter sustains a laceration over the volar aspect of his proximal phalanx, resulting in a Zone II flexor tendon injury. What is the primary source of nutrition to the flexor tendons in this specific zone?

. Direct arterial branches from the common digital arteries
. Vincula longa and brevia along with synovial diffusion
. Peritendinous capillary network
. Muscular branches of the median nerve
. Cutaneous perforators

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vincula longa and brevia along with synovial diffusion


Explanation

Flexor tendons in Zone II receive nutrition through a dual mechanism: synovial diffusion, which provides the majority, and vascular perfusion via the vincula (longa and brevia).

Question 3898

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with a laceration over the volar aspect of the proximal phalanx of the index finger. Both the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) are severed. According to the Verdan classification, which zone of injury is this?
. Zone I
. Zone II
. Zone III
. Zone IV
. Zone V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone II


Explanation

Zone II extends from the proximal A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the FDS insertion at the middle phalanx. It is historically known as "no man's land" due to poor healing outcomes from tendon adhesions.

Question 3899

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. What is the most common anatomical variation of this branch?

. Extraligamentous
. Subligamentous
. Transligamentous
. Pre-ligamentous
. Ulnar to the palmaris longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extraligamentous


Explanation

The most common anatomical variation of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve is extraligamentous with recurrent branching (approx 50-80%). It exits distal to the transverse carpal ligament and curves back to innervate the thenar muscles.

Question 3900

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During an extensile posterior approach utilizing an olecranon osteotomy for a comminuted distal humerus fracture (AO/OTA 13C3), the surgeon isolates the ulnar nerve. Which vascular structure typically accompanies the ulnar nerve as it passes posterior to the medial epicondyle?

. Superior ulnar collateral artery
. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
. Radial collateral artery
. Middle collateral artery
. Recurrent ulnar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior ulnar collateral artery


Explanation

The superior ulnar collateral artery branches from the brachial artery and pierces the medial intermuscular septum to accompany the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle.