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Question 3261

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 60-year-old carpenter presents with progressive right wrist pain over the past two years. Radiographs reveal advanced joint space narrowing, sclerosis, and osteophyte formation of the entire radioscaphoid articulation. The radiolunate and midcarpal (capitolunate) joints appear completely preserved with no evidence of arthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?

. Radial styloidectomy
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Capitolunate arthrodesis
. Total wrist arthroplasty
. Luno-triquetral arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal row carpectomy


Explanation

The patient has Stage II Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC), which is characterized by arthritis extending to the entire radioscaphoid joint, while sparing the radiolunate and midcarpal (capitolunate) joints. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) or scaphoid excision combined with a four-corner fusion are the mainstays of surgical treatment. Because the cartilage on the head of the capitate and the lunate fossa of the radius is preserved, PRC is an excellent option that provides good pain relief and maintains a functional arc of motion.

Question 3262

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman presents with sudden loss of active thumb interphalangeal joint flexion 9 months after volar plate fixation of a distal radius fracture. Radiographs show the plate is positioned volar to the watershed line. Which of the following describes the most likely pathogenesis of her current condition?

. Ischemic necrosis of the FPL tendon
. Prominence of the plate causing attrition of the FPL tendon
. Entrapment of the anterior interosseous nerve
. Prominent dorsal screws irritating the extensor pollicis longus
. FPL rupture secondary to an undiagnosed carpal bone fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prominence of the plate causing attrition of the FPL tendon


Explanation

Plate placement distal to the watershed line (Soong grade 2) significantly increases the risk of flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon attrition and rupture. Prompt plate removal is recommended if early signs of tenosynovitis occur.

Question 3263

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 42-year-old man undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he notes numbness along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair. Injury typically occurs due to excessive lateral retraction.

Question 3264

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old female undergoes volar locking plate fixation for a distal radius fracture. Six months postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon
. Prominent screws dorsal to the cortex
. Plate placement distal to the watershed line
. Median nerve compression
. Adhesions of the flexor digitorum profundus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plate placement distal to the watershed line


Explanation

Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) rupture is a known complication of volar plating if the plate is placed distal to the watershed line. The prominent edge of the plate causes attritional wear and subsequent tendon rupture.

Question 3265

Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 28-year-old male sustains a scaphoid waist fracture that progresses to a scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC) pattern. Radiographs reveal degenerative changes limited to the radioscaphoid joint. What stage of SNAC wrist does this represent?
. Stage I
. Stage II
. Stage III
. Stage IV
. Stage V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage I


Explanation

SNAC Stage I involves arthritis localized to the radioscaphoid joint. Stage II involves the scaphocapitate joint, and Stage III progresses to involve the capitolunate joint.

Question 3266

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 38-year-old bodybuilder undergoes a single-incision anterior approach repair for a distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and tingling along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior distal biceps repair. The posterior interosseous nerve is more commonly at risk with a two-incision approach.

Question 3267

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 50-year-old male presents with weakness of pinch grip and numbness in the small finger, extending to the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand. Examination reveals weakness of the first dorsal interosseous muscle and a positive Froment sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Carpal tunnel syndrome
. Guyon canal syndrome
. Cubital tunnel syndrome
. Radial tunnel syndrome
. Pronator syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubital tunnel syndrome


Explanation

The combination of sensory symptoms in the ulnar digits and weakness in ulnar-innervated intrinsic muscles suggests ulnar neuropathy. Sensation loss over the dorsal ulnar hand localizes the compression proximal to Guyon's canal, pointing to cubital tunnel syndrome.

Question 3268

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old construction worker presents with chronic wrist pain and decreased grip strength. Radiographs reveal sclerosis of the lunate with negative ulnar variance, but no carpal collapse. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Proximal row carpectomy
. Four-corner fusion
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Scaphoid excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

Early-stage Kienbock disease associated with negative ulnar variance is best treated with a joint leveling procedure, such as a radial shortening osteotomy. This decreases load transmission across the avascular lunate.

Question 3269

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old carpenter lacerates his index finger at the level of the proximal phalanx, completely severing both the FDS and FDP tendons (Zone II). Which of the following factors has the most direct correlation with the tensile strength of the primary flexor tendon repair, allowing for an early active motion protocol?

. The use of a running epitendinous suture alone
. The location of the knot (inside versus outside the repair site)
. The number of suture strands crossing the repair site
. The caliber of the epitendinous suture material used
. The use of a traditional 2-strand modified Kessler technique

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The number of suture strands crossing the repair site


Explanation

The initial tensile strength of a flexor tendon repair is directly proportional to the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site. A 4- or 6-strand repair provides sufficient strength to withstand the forces of early active motion rehabilitation.

Question 3270

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old man presents with chronic, progressive wrist pain and stiffness 5 years after an untreated wrist injury. Radiographs reveal advanced sclerosis and collapse of the scaphoid with radioscaphoid arthritis. The radiolunate and midcarpal joints remain preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this stage of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC)?
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis
. Radial styloidectomy alone
. Scaphoid open reduction internal fixation with vascularized bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis


Explanation

In advanced SNAC (Stage II/III) where the radiolunate joint is spared but midcarpal or radioscaphoid arthritis is present, a scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is indicated. Proximal row carpectomy is generally contraindicated if significant capitate head arthritis is present, which frequently accompanies advanced stages.

Question 3271

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old typist complains of numbness in his ring and small fingers, and weakness in his hand. Examination reveals a positive Froment's sign when attempting to pinch a piece of paper. Which muscle is compensating for the primary motor deficit during this maneuver?

. Adductor pollicis
. Flexor pollicis longus
. Abductor pollicis brevis
. First dorsal interosseous
. Extensor pollicis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis


Explanation

Froment's sign demonstrates compensatory interphalangeal joint flexion by the flexor pollicis longus (innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve) during pinch grip. This compensates for the weakness of the adductor pollicis, which is paralyzed due to ulnar nerve compression (cubital or Guyon's canal).

Question 3272

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 28-year-old construction worker complains of dorsal central wrist pain. Radiographs reveal ulnar negative variance and sclerosis of the lunate without collapse. MRI confirms diffuse avascular necrosis of the lunate. What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention to offload the radiolunate joint?

. Ulnar lengthening osteotomy
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Vascularized bone graft from the distal radius
. Lunate excision and silastic replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

In early-stage Kienbock's disease (stage I or II) with ulnar negative variance, a radial shortening osteotomy is the treatment of choice. It levels the joint and decreases the mechanical load transmitted through the lunate, potentially allowing for revascularization.

Question 3273

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old male sustains a severe high-energy wrist hyperextension injury. Lateral radiograph demonstrates the capitate resting dorsally to the lunate, while the lunate maintains its normal alignment with the distal radius. The patient exhibits acute numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

. Immediate carpal tunnel release without reduction
. Emergent closed reduction of the carpus followed by splinting and delayed ORIF
. Urgent MRI to evaluate the scapholunate ligament
. Immediate open reduction and complete proximal row carpectomy
. Administration of systemic corticosteroids to reduce nerve swelling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent closed reduction of the carpus followed by splinting and delayed ORIF


Explanation

The scenario describes a dorsal perilunate dislocation causing acute median nerve compression. Emergent closed reduction is required to relieve pressure on the median nerve, followed by definitive surgical stabilization (ORIF) typically performed semi-electively.

Question 3274

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 62-year-old female with advanced basal joint arthritis undergoes a ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition (LRTI) procedure using the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon. This procedure is specifically designed to reconstruct which primary stabilizing ligament of the trapeziometacarpal joint to prevent proximal metacarpal subsidence?

. Dorsal radial ligament
. Ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior oblique ligament (AOL)
. Intermetacarpal ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior oblique ligament (AOL)


Explanation

The anterior oblique ligament (AOL) is the primary volar stabilizer of the thumb carpometacarpal joint. The LRTI procedure utilizes a tendon slip (most commonly FCR) routed through the base of the first metacarpal to reconstruct the AOL and prevent proximal migration.

Question 3275

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old mechanic presents with a swollen, erythematous index finger held in slight flexion. He reports severe pain when the examiner passively extends the digit. He has exquisite tenderness along the volar aspect of the digit. If left untreated, what is the most significant consequence of the increased pressure within the flexor tendon sheath?

. Metacarpophalangeal joint dislocation
. Tendon necrosis and rupture secondary to ischemia
. Spontaneous auto-amputation of the distal phalanx
. Median nerve permanent neuropathy
. Development of an enchondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tendon necrosis and rupture secondary to ischemia


Explanation

The patient exhibits Kanavel's signs for acute purulent flexor tenosynovitis. Prompt surgical irrigation and debridement are critical because increased pressure within the closed flexor tendon sheath causes ischemia, leading to rapid tendon necrosis and irreversible functional loss.

Question 3276

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 60-year-old woman requires open reduction and internal fixation for a volar Barton's fracture of the distal radius. The surgeon utilizes a standard volar Henry approach. During distal dissection, which structure must be carefully retracted ulnarly to protect the median nerve while maintaining the plane between the FCR and radial artery?

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
. Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
. Flexor pollicis longus tendon
. Flexor carpi radialis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve


Explanation

In the standard volar Henry approach to the distal radius, the interval is between the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and the radial artery. Retracting the FCR tendon ulnarly protects the median nerve, including its palmar cutaneous branch, which lies ulnar to the FCR.

Question 3277

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 24-year-old gymnast presents with persistent ulnar-sided wrist pain and clicking upon pronation and supination. Examination reveals gross instability of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) and a positive foveal sign. MRI confirms a complete avulsion of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). Which specific fibers must be reattached to restore DRUJ stability?

. Superficial radioulnar ligaments attaching to the ulnar styloid tip
. Deep radioulnar ligaments (ligamentum subcruentum) attaching to the fovea
. Ulnocarpal ligaments (ulnolunate and ulnotriquetral)
. Extensor carpi ulnaris subsheath
. Volar radioulnar ligament midsubstance fibers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep radioulnar ligaments (ligamentum subcruentum) attaching to the fovea


Explanation

The deep fibers of the TFCC (ligamentum subcruentum), which insert into the fovea at the base of the ulnar styloid, are the primary stabilizers of the DRUJ. Failure to repair these deep fibers results in persistent DRUJ instability.

Question 3278

Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a chronic scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid arthritis, but the capitolunate joint and midcarpal joints are perfectly preserved. What stage of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) does this represent, and what is an appropriate surgical option?
. Stage I SNAC; scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
. Stage II SNAC; proximal row carpectomy
. Stage III SNAC; proximal row carpectomy
. Stage II SNAC; radial styloidectomy alone
. Stage I SNAC; total wrist arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage II SNAC; proximal row carpectomy


Explanation

SNAC Stage II involves arthritis extending to the entire radioscaphoid joint while sparing the midcarpal joint. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) or scaphoid excision with four-corner fusion are standard motion-preserving surgical treatments for Stage II SNAC.

Question 3279

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old carpenter presents with persistent numbness in his small and ring fingers, accompanied by intrinsic hand muscle weakness. He is diagnosed with severe cubital tunnel syndrome. During surgical decompression, which structure represents the most common site of ulnar nerve compression at the elbow?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Medial intermuscular septum
. Osborne's ligament (cubital tunnel retinaculum)
. Deep flexor pronator aponeurosis
. Ligament of Struthers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osborne's ligament (cubital tunnel retinaculum)


Explanation

Osborne's ligament, also known as the cubital tunnel retinaculum, spans between the olecranon and the medial epicondyle and is the most frequent site of ulnar nerve compression. The ligament of Struthers is associated with median nerve compression in the distal humerus.

Question 3280

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 29-year-old man falls backward onto his extended wrist and complains of severe dorsal radial wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a widened scapholunate interval of 5 mm and a "cortical ring sign" of the scaphoid. The patient is scheduled for surgical repair of the scapholunate ligament. Which portion of the scapholunate interosseous ligament is the strongest and most critical to repair for carpal stability?

. Volar (palmar) band
. Proximal membranous portion
. Dorsal band
. Radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal band


Explanation

The scapholunate interosseous ligament consists of three distinct regions: the volar band, the proximal membranous portion, and the dorsal band. The dorsal band is the thickest, strongest, and acts as the primary restraint to palmar flexion of the scaphoid, making its anatomic repair critical.