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Question 3141

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

During a standard volar (Henry) approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture, the surgeon must carefully position the volar locking plate to minimize postoperative complications. Which of the following technical errors in plate placement is most strongly associated with late iatrogenic rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon?

. Placement of the plate proximal to the watershed line
. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line
. Using locking screws that protrude past the dorsal cortex
. Failure to anatomically repair the pronator quadratus
. Inadequate mobilization of the brachioradialis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The watershed line is the distal margin of the pronator fossa on the volar radius. Placing a volar plate distal to the watershed line causes the implant to protrude anteriorly, placing it in direct mechanical contact with the overlying flexor tendons. This prominence causes mechanical attrition, most commonly leading to late rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon.

Question 3142

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 25-year-old man complains of persistent radial-sided wrist pain 10 months after falling onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a nonunion of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. A subsequent MRI reveals lack of enhancement in the proximal pole, consistent with avascular necrosis (AVN). There is no radiographic evidence of radiocarpal or midcarpal osteoarthritis.

Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Non-vascularized iliac crest bone graft with compression screw fixation
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner limited carpal fusion
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Vascularized bone grafting with rigid internal fixation
. Radial styloidectomy and posterior interosseous nerve neurectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vascularized bone grafting with rigid internal fixation


Explanation

The patient has a scaphoid proximal pole nonunion complicated by avascular necrosis (AVN), but without the presence of scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC) arthritis. Standard non-vascularized bone grafting has an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of proximal pole AVN. The treatment of choice to achieve union in this specific scenario is a vascularized bone graft (such as the 1,2-intercompartmental supraretinacular artery [1,2-ICSRA] graft from the distal radius or a free vascularized medial femoral condyle graft) paired with rigid internal fixation. Salvage procedures like a four-corner fusion or proximal row carpectomy are reserved for patients who have already developed established carpal arthritis.

Question 3143

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced distal radius fracture.

Six months postoperatively, she presents with a new-onset inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following technical errors during the initial surgery most likely caused this complication?

. Prominent dorsal screw tips penetrating the extensor compartments
. Placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line
. Iatrogenic traction injury to the anterior interosseous nerve
. Failure to repair the pronator quadratus muscle
. Intra-articular screw penetration into the radiocarpal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The patient is presenting with a rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon, a known complication of volar plating of the distal radius. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius causes the prominent distal edge of the plate to rub against the FPL tendon during wrist motion, leading to tenosynovitis and subsequent attrition rupture.

Question 3144

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 65-year-old woman is treated nonoperatively in a short arm cast for a nondisplaced extra-articular fracture of the distal radius. Six weeks later, the cast is removed, and radiographs show a healed fracture. However, she suddenly notes an inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. The tenodesis effect is absent for the thumb. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this complication?

. Primary end-to-end repair of the affected tendon
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
. Palmaris longus autograft interposition reconstruction
. Arthrodesis of the thumb interphalangeal joint
. Brachioradialis to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer


Explanation

The patient has sustained an extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture, a known complication following distal radius fractures, even those that are nondisplaced. The rupture typically occurs at Lister's tubercle due to vascular ischemia in the tendon's watershed zone or mechanical attrition from fracture callus. Because the tendon ends are typically frayed, retracted, and degenerated, primary repair is usually impossible. The gold standard treatment is a tendon transfer utilizing the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the EPL.

Question 3145

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman returns to the clinic 6 weeks after a non-displaced distal radius fracture that was treated successfully in a short-arm cast. She reports a sudden inability to actively extend the interphalangeal joint of her right thumb. Examination confirms an isolated loss of active thumb extension. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
. Extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
. Free palmaris longus interposition tendon graft
. Arthrodesis of the thumb interphalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer


Explanation

This patient has suffered an extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture, a known complication following non-displaced distal radius fractures. The rupture occurs at Lister's tubercle due to a combination of mechanical attrition and a zone of hypovascularity within the intact third dorsal compartment. Primary end-to-end repair is usually impossible due to tendon retraction and degeneration. The gold standard surgical treatment is a tendon transfer using the Extensor Indicis Proprius (EIP) to the EPL.

Question 3146

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 65-year-old female undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced intra-articular distal radius fracture. Four months postoperatively, she returns to the clinic with a sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following surgical technique errors is most likely responsible for this complication?

. Penetration of the dorsal cortex by the distal locking screws
. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line
. Over-distraction of the fracture during reduction
. Dissection radial to the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon
. Failure to repair the pronator quadratus muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The sudden inability to flex the thumb IP joint indicates a rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon. In volar plating of the distal radius, the FPL tendon is at high risk of attrition and spontaneous rupture if the volar plate is placed too distally, projecting anteriorly over the 'watershed line' of the distal radius. Penetration of the dorsal cortex by screws puts the extensor tendons (such as the EPL) at risk, not the flexors.

Question 3147

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a comminuted intra-articular distal radius fracture. Six months postoperatively, she presents with a sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs confirm that the fracture has healed in anatomic alignment. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus tendon secondary to plate prominence distal to the watershed line
. Iatrogenic injury to the anterior interosseous nerve during the index surgical approach
. Attritional rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon secondary to prominent dorsal screws
. Post-traumatic osteoarthritis of the trapeziometacarpal joint
. Flexor tendon entrapment within the extensive volar fracture callus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus tendon secondary to plate prominence distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon lies in close proximity to the volar aspect of the distal radius. If a volar plate is placed too distally (prominent anterior to the watershed line), it can cause mechanical friction against the FPL tendon during wrist and thumb motion. Over time, this leads to attritional tenosynovitis and eventual rupture of the FPL tendon, presenting as a loss of active thumb interphalangeal joint flexion.

Question 3148

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman was treated non-operatively in a cast for 6 weeks for a minimally displaced, extra-articular distal radius fracture. Three weeks after cast removal, she reports a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. She denies any new trauma. Radiographs show a healing distal radius fracture with maintained alignment. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this complication?

. Primary end-to-end repair of the ruptured tendon
. Transfer of the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) to the ruptured tendon
. Transfer of the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the ruptured tendon
. Corticosteroid injection into the first dorsal compartment
. Transfer of the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) to the ruptured tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the ruptured tendon


Explanation

This patient has experienced an attrition rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a classic complication following both non-operative and operative management of distal radius fractures. The tendon degenerates due to mechanical attrition at Lister's tubercle and focal ischemia. Because the tendon ends are typically frayed and retracted, primary end-to-end repair is rarely possible. The gold standard treatment is a tendon transfer using the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the EPL, which effectively restores thumb extension without causing significant functional deficit to the index finger.

Question 3149

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced intra-articular distal radius fracture. Postoperative radiographs show the plate positioned distal to the watershed line of the distal radius. Six months later, she presents to the clinic with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

. Anterior interosseous nerve neuropraxia
. Extensor pollicis longus rupture
. Flexor pollicis longus rupture
. Missed concomitant scaphoid fracture
. Volar compartment syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor pollicis longus rupture


Explanation

Plate placement distal to the watershed line of the distal radius increases the risk of flexor tendon irritation and subsequent attrition rupture. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is most commonly affected due to its anatomical proximity to the prominent distal edge of the volar plate.

Question 3150

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced distal radius fracture. Four months postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. She reports no recent acute trauma. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
. Nonunion of the distal radius fracture
. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon
. Median nerve compression at the carpal tunnel
. Undiagnosed scaphoid fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon


Explanation

Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is a known complication of volar locked plating of the distal radius. It is usually caused by the plate being placed too far distally (beyond the watershed line), leading to mechanical prominence and frictional wear of the tendon. This presents as an inability to actively flex the thumb IP joint.

Question 3151

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old man presents with severe right-sided neck and arm pain. Physical examination reveals weakness in right elbow extension, wrist flexion, and finger extension. His triceps reflex is diminished on the right. Sensation is decreased over the middle finger. Which of the following nerve roots is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a C7 radiculopathy. C7 nerve root compression typically causes weakness in elbow extension (triceps), wrist flexion (flexor carpi radialis), and finger extension (extensor digitorum communis). The triceps reflex is mediated by C7. Sensory changes are typically noted in the middle finger. For differentiation, C5 affects the deltoid/biceps; C6 affects wrist extension/biceps reflex/thumb sensation; C8 affects finger flexion/hand intrinsics.

Question 3152

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 52-year-old female presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down her arm. On examination, she has profound weakness in elbow extension and wrist flexion on the right side. She also exhibits diminished pinprick sensation over her middle finger and an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

The patient's clinical presentation is classic for a C7 radiculopathy. The C7 nerve root supplies the triceps (elbow extension) and flexor carpi radialis (wrist flexion). Sensory innervation covers the middle finger. The triceps reflex evaluates the C7 nerve root. In contrast, C5 affects the deltoid/biceps; C6 affects wrist extension and brachioradialis reflex with thumb sensation; and C8 affects finger flexors and hand intrinsics.

Question 3153

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 58-year-old male presents with deteriorating handwriting, difficulty buttoning his shirts, and frequent tripping over the last six months. On physical examination, flicking the nail of his middle finger results in reflexive flexion of the thumb and index finger. This specific clinical sign indicates pathology in which of the following anatomic locations?

. Lumbar nerve root
. Cervical spinal cord
. Brachial plexus
. Ulnar nerve at the cubital tunnel
. Median nerve at the carpal tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical spinal cord


Explanation

The scenario describes the Hoffmann sign. A positive Hoffmann sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion, characteristic of cervical myelopathy (compression of the cervical spinal cord). It does not indicate lower motor neuron pathology such as radiculopathy, brachial plexopathy, or peripheral nerve entrapment (cubital or carpal tunnel syndromes).

Question 3154

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old man sustains a midshaft humerus fracture resulting in a complete, high radial nerve palsy. After 14 months of observation and serial EMGs showing no signs of reinnervation, tendon transfers are planned. To optimally restore active wrist extension, which of the following is the most standard and reliable donor muscle?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)
. Pronator teres (PT)
. Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)
. Palmaris longus (PL)
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres (PT)


Explanation

The pronator teres (PT) to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) transfer is the workhorse procedure for restoring wrist extension in patients with an irreparable radial nerve palsy. The PT is chosen due to its favorable excursion, strength, and synergistic function with wrist extension. The ECRB is preferred over the ECRL as the recipient because its more central insertion at the base of the third metacarpal minimizes radial deviation during wrist extension.

Question 3155

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 42-year-old woman reports sudden onset of severe, unprovoked left forearm and shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks and has now resolved. However, she currently complains of difficulty writing and an inability to form an 'OK' sign with her thumb and index finger. She has no numbness or tingling. What is the most likely diagnosis and recommended initial management?

. Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome secondary to compression at the lacertus fibrosus; surgical release
. Pronator syndrome; nighttime wrist splinting
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy); observation and physical therapy
. High median nerve palsy; immediate MRI of the cervical spine
. Flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus tendon rupture; primary repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy); observation and physical therapy


Explanation

The patient's presentation of intense pain followed by purely motor weakness is classic for Parsonage-Turner syndrome (brachial neuritis). Her inability to make the 'OK' sign indicates involvement of the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), which supplies the flexor pollicis longus, the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus. Brachial neuritis frequently mimics compressive neuropathies but is primarily managed non-operatively with observation and supportive care.

Question 3156

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old man complains of chronic right wrist pain 10 years after a fall. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with arthritic changes at the radioscaphoid joint and the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is completely spared. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis
. Radial styloidectomy
. Open reduction and internal fixation with vascularized bone grafting
. Total wrist arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis


Explanation

This patient has Stage III Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC). SNAC Stage I involves the radial styloid; Stage II involves the entire radioscaphoid joint; Stage III involves the capitolunate joint; and Stage IV involves pancarpal arthritis. Because the capitolunate joint is arthritic, a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated (as it requires a pristine capitate head to articulate with the lunate fossa). Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is the best motion-preserving option.

Question 3157

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman is seen 6 months after undergoing volar locking plate fixation for a displaced distal radius fracture.

She reports a recent, sudden inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. She experienced some volar wrist crepitus in the weeks prior. What is the most likely etiology of her new deficit?

. Delayed diagnosis of an anterior interosseous nerve injury
. Prominent distal screws penetrating the dorsal cortex
. Placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line
. Nonunion of the distal radius causing dynamic instability
. Avascular necrosis of the lunate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of the volar plate distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The patient has suffered an iatrogenic rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon, which is the most common flexor tendon to rupture following volar plating of the distal radius. This complication is classically associated with placing the plate distal to the 'watershed line'โ€”the bony ridge at the distal margin of the pronator fossa. Prominence of hardware here causes frictional wear and subsequent tendon attrition. Dorsal screw prominence typically endangers the extensor tendons, such as the extensor pollicis longus (EPL).

Question 3158

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old carpenter presents with worsening dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs show sclerosis and fragmentation of the lunate, with preserved carpal height (no collapse). The patient has a negative ulnar variance of 3 mm. According to the Lichtman classification, the patient has Stage IIIa Kienbรถck's disease. Which of the following is the most widely accepted surgical intervention for this specific presentation?
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Scaphoid-trapezium-trapezoid (STT) arthrodesis
. Total wrist arthroplasty
. Lunate excision with tendon interposition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

In the setting of Kienbรถck's disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate) prior to carpal collapse (Lichtman Stages I, II, or IIIa) in a patient with negative ulnar variance, joint-leveling procedures are indicated to mechanically offload the lunate. A radial shortening osteotomy is the most common and reliable method, preferred over ulnar lengthening due to lower rates of nonunion and hardware complications.

Question 3159

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old woman undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she presents with inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs show the fracture is fully healed. What was the most likely surgical error that led to this complication?

. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line
. Overpenetration of dorsal locking screws
. Failure to repair the pronator quadratus muscle
. Vigorous retraction of the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon
. Placement of the plate proximal to the watershed line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The patient is experiencing a flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture. The most common cause of FPL rupture following volar plating of the distal radius is prominent hardware. Placing the plate distal to the 'watershed line' of the distal radius positions the hardware directly against the flexor tendons. The watershed line marks the distal margin of the pronator fossa; plates placed over or distal to this line cause frictional attrition of the FPL tendon during wrist and finger motion, eventually leading to rupture.

Question 3160

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 50-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic right wrist pain. Radiographs reveal advanced osteoarthritis involving the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, with preservation of the radiolunate joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate motion-preserving surgical treatment?
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
. Radial styloidectomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Scaphotrapezio-trapezoid (STT) fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion


Explanation

The patient has Stage III Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC), characterized by arthritis involving the capitolunate joint in addition to the radioscaphoid joint. The radiolunate joint is characteristically spared because of the congruent spherical articulation and intact short radiolunate ligament. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated in Stage III SLAC because it relies on a healthy articulation between the capitate head and the lunate fossa of the radius; placing an arthritic capitate head into the lunate fossa would lead to continued pain and failure. Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion (capitate, lunate, triquetrum, hamate) is the preferred motion-preserving procedure for Stage III SLAC.