This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2921
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female is 6 weeks post non-operative management of a minimally displaced distal radius fracture. She suddenly loses the ability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. Physical exam confirms loss of retropulsion but normal function of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. What is the MOST appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) repair with palmaris longus autograft
Explanation
The patient has suffered a delayed rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a known complication of nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures due to ischemia and attrition within the third dorsal compartment. Direct repair is usually impossible due to retracted, frayed tendon ends. The gold standard treatment is an extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL tendon transfer, which restores independent thumb extension without significant morbidity to the index finger.
Question 2922
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old male sustained a C5-C6 upper trunk brachial plexus injury 5 months ago. He has no active elbow flexion, but hand and wrist function are fully intact. He is scheduled for an Oberlin transfer. This procedure classically involves which of the following nerve transfers?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial pectoral nerve to musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The classic Oberlin transfer (Oberlin I) is used to restore elbow flexion in upper trunk brachial plexus injuries. It involves transferring a redundant fascicle of the ulnar nerve (usually one supplying the flexor carpi ulnaris) directly to the motor branch of the biceps muscle. A modified version (Oberlin II or double nerve transfer) adds a transfer from a median nerve fascicle to the brachialis motor branch to further augment elbow flexion.
Question 2923
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 50-year-old patient with severe carpal tunnel syndrome exhibits paradoxical preservation of intrinsic hand muscle function that is normally innervated by the median nerve. Electromyography confirms an anomalous motor communication between the median and ulnar nerves in the proximal forearm. What is the eponymous name of this anatomical variant?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Riche-Cannieu anastomosis
Explanation
The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a common anatomical variant (present in ~15% of individuals) where motor nerve fibers cross from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm. This can result in intrinsic hand muscles, typically innervated by the median nerve, receiving their supply via the ulnar nerve, thus preserving their function even in severe carpal tunnel syndrome. Riche-Cannieu is an anastomosis between the deep ulnar branch and recurrent median branch in the hand. Marinacci is a reverse Martin-Gruber (ulnar to median in the forearm).
Question 2924
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old manual laborer presents with progressive dorsal wrist pain. Imaging reveals lunate sclerosis and a coronal fracture line. Carpal height is preserved, and there is no fixed scaphoid rotation (Lichtman Stage IIIA Kienböck's disease). Radiographs demonstrate an ulnar variance of negative 3 mm. What is the MOST appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
Explanation
This patient has Stage IIIA Kienböck's disease (lunate collapse without carpal collapse or fixed scaphoid rotation) and ulnar negative variance. Joint leveling procedures, such as a radial shortening osteotomy, are the treatment of choice in this scenario. By equalizing the lengths of the radius and ulna, the biomechanical load is shifted off the radiolunate joint and onto the ulnocarpal joint, halting disease progression and relieving pain.
Question 2925
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, progressive dorsal wrist pain and weakness in grip strength. He sustained a 'sprained wrist' 10 years ago that was never treated. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with advanced joint space narrowing and sclerosis at the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints; however, the radiolunate joint is remarkably preserved. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate surgical management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
Explanation
This patient presents with Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) Stage III. SNAC wrist predictably progresses through specific patterns of arthritis: Stage I involves the radial styloid; Stage II involves the entire radioscaphoid joint; Stage III involves the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is characteristically spared because the lunate's spherical shape maintains congruent articulation with the lunate fossa, unlike the elliptical scaphoid. Because the capitolunate joint is arthritic, a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated (as PRC relies on a pristine capitate head to articulate with the lunate fossa). Therefore, the most appropriate motion-preserving procedure is a four-corner arthrodesis (capitate, lunate, hamate, triquetrum) with scaphoid excision.
Question 2926
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old poorly-controlled diabetic male presents with acute pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb following a minor puncture wound. He delays seeking medical attention for 72 hours. Upon presentation, his small finger is also markedly swollen, held in a flexed posture, and exquisitely tender along its volar aspect, while the index, middle, and ring fingers remain relatively unaffected. Which anatomical feature explains the direct contiguous spread of infection from the thumb to the small finger in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Communication between the radial and ulnar bursae proximally within the space of Parona
Explanation
This classic presentation represents a 'horseshoe abscess.' The flexor tendon sheath of the thumb is continuous proximally with the radial bursa, and the flexor sheath of the small finger is continuous with the ulnar bursa. In roughly 50-80% of individuals, the radial and ulnar bursae communicate with each other in the proximal palm/carpal tunnel area, known as the space of Parona (located deep to the flexor tendons and superficial to the pronator quadratus). This anatomical connection allows an infection originating in the thumb's flexor sheath to spread proximally into the radial bursa, across to the ulnar bursa, and distally into the small finger, sparing the index, middle, and ring fingers whose flexor sheaths typically terminate proximally at the level of the A1 pulleys.
Question 2927
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old male presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC) pattern with arthritic changes present at the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints. The radiolunate joint is well preserved. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scaphoid open reduction and internal fixation with vascularized bone grafting
Explanation
The patient has Stage III SNAC wrist (arthritis of the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, with a preserved radiolunate joint). A four-corner arthrodesis with scaphoid excision relies on a preserved radiolunate articulation and is the procedure of choice. Proximal row carpectomy is contraindicated in this patient due to the presence of capitolunate arthritis, as the procedure requires a pristine capitate head to articulate with the lunate fossa of the radius.
Question 2928
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 50-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of numbness in his ring and small fingers, accompanied by weakness in his hand grip. Examination reveals a positive Froment's sign. Which of the following physical examination findings would best differentiate the site of ulnar nerve compression as being at the cubital tunnel rather than Guyon's canal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Positive Froment's sign
Explanation
The dorsal ulnar cutaneous nerve branches from the ulnar nerve approximately 5-8 cm proximal to the wrist (proximal to Guyon's canal). Therefore, decreased sensation over the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand indicates a lesion proximal to the wrist, such as at the cubital tunnel. Findings like Froment's sign, Wartenberg's sign, and interosseous weakness result from motor deficits of the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and can be seen in both distal and proximal compression.
Question 2929
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old man undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for a distal biceps tendon repair. Postoperatively, he notes weakness in extending his thumb and fingers. When asked to extend his wrist, his wrist deviates radially. Sensation in the hand and forearm is entirely intact. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during the anterior single-incision approach to the distal biceps, particularly during forceful radial retraction. PIN palsy results in motor weakness of the thumb and finger extensors, as well as the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU). Because the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) is innervated by the radial nerve proximal to the PIN branch, wrist extension is preserved but deviates radially due to the unopposed ECRL overpowering the paralyzed ECU. There is no sensory deficit in isolated PIN palsy.
Question 2930
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman is 6 months status post volar locking plate fixation for a comminuted distal radius fracture. She complains of a sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Lateral radiographs demonstrate the distal edge of the volar plate is positioned prominently volar to the watershed line. What is the most likely cause of her current presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve palsy
Explanation
Positioning a volar plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius places the flexor tendons at high risk for frictional wear against the plate. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is most commonly affected due to its anatomic position directly over the distal radius. This attritional wear can lead to sudden, painless rupture of the FPL, presenting as a loss of active IP joint flexion of the thumb.
Question 2931
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old construction worker presents with chronic dorsal wrist pain and stiffness. Radiographs reveal sclerosis and early collapse of the lunate, consistent with Kienböck's disease. Measurement of ulnar variance shows ulnar minus 3 mm. The articular cartilage of the radiocarpal and midcarpal joints appears well-preserved on MRI. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention to decompress the lunate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
In early Kienböck's disease (Lichtman Stage II or IIIA) with negative ulnar variance and preserved cartilage, joint-leveling procedures are indicated to mechanically unload the lunate. A radial shortening osteotomy (or ulnar lengthening osteotomy) decreases the compressive forces on the lunate by transferring loads to the ulnocarpal joint. Ulnar shortening is indicated for ulnar impaction syndrome, not Kienböck's.
Question 2932
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, progressive radial-sided wrist pain. He has a history of a fall on an outstretched hand 10 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion with advanced collapse (SNAC). There is significant joint space narrowing and sclerosis at the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, but the radiolunate articulation is well preserved. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
The patient has Stage 2/3 Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), characterized by radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis with a spared radiolunate joint. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is the treatment of choice. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated in this scenario because it relies on a healthy capitolunate articulation; if the capitate head is arthritic (as in SNAC Stage 2/3 or SLAC Stage 3), PRC will result in painful articulation with the lunate fossa. Total wrist arthrodesis is reserved for pancarpal arthritis or failed partial fusions. Scaphoid ORIF is not indicated once advanced degenerative changes have occurred.
Question 2933
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old woman is seen 9 months after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. She reports the sudden onset of an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Passive motion is intact. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus rupture due to prominent dorsal screws
Explanation
Sudden loss of active IP joint flexion of the thumb following volar plating of the distal radius is highly characteristic of a flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture. This complication most commonly occurs when the volar plate is placed distal to the watershed line of the distal radius, leading to prominent hardware that causes attritional wear and eventual rupture of the overlying FPL tendon. EPL ruptures (Option 0) result in loss of thumb extension and are more commonly associated with prominent dorsal screws penetrating the dorsal cortex.
Question 2934
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old carpenter presents with numbness and tingling in the small and ring fingers of his right hand, along with weakness in grip strength. On examination, when asked to hold a piece of paper between his thumb and radial side of his index finger against resistance, the interphalangeal joint of his thumb hyperflexes (positive Froment sign). Which muscle is the patient substituting with to maintain hold of the paper?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation
A positive Froment sign is indicative of ulnar nerve palsy. The primary muscle responsible for adduction of the thumb is the adductor pollicis, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve. When this muscle is weak or paralyzed, the patient involuntarily compensates by using the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve), causing hyperflexion at the interphalangeal joint of the thumb.
Question 2935
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 50-year-old woman presents with persistent ulnar-sided wrist pain that worsens with pronation and gripping, 1 year after non-operative management of a distal radius fracture.
Radiographs demonstrate a healed distal radius with 4 mm of radial shortening, resulting in positive ulnar variance. MRI reveals degenerative tearing of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) and cystic changes in the lunate. The distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) is congruous without advanced arthritis. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sauvé-Kapandji procedure
Explanation
The patient has ulnar impaction syndrome secondary to a malunited distal radius fracture with significant positive ulnar variance (4 mm). Ulnar shortening osteotomy is the treatment of choice as it decompresses the ulnocarpal joint while maintaining the congruous DRUJ. The arthroscopic wafer procedure is typically reserved for positive ulnar variance of 2 mm or less. Sauvé-Kapandji and Darrach procedures are salvage operations indicated for DRUJ arthritis, which this patient does not have.
Question 2936
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old man presents with chronic, progressive wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). Imaging demonstrates moderate degenerative changes at the radioscaphoid joint and the scaphocapitate joint, while the radiolunate articulation is entirely spared. However, there is marked cartilage loss and degenerative cyst formation on the proximal head of the capitate. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
Explanation
This patient has a SNAC wrist. The decision between a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) and a scaphoid excision with four-corner arthrodesis depends heavily on the condition of the lunate fossa of the radius and the proximal head of the capitate. Because a PRC relies on a new articulation between the capitate head and the lunate fossa, arthritis of the capitate head is an absolute contraindication to PRC. Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis is the most appropriate motion-preserving procedure in this scenario.
Question 2937
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman sustained a nondisplaced fracture of the distal radius 6 weeks ago, which was managed conservatively in a short-arm cast. Two days after cast removal, she suddenly loses the ability to actively extend the interphalangeal joint of her thumb.
Radiographs show healing of the distal radius fracture with no displacement. What is the gold standard surgical intervention for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the ruptured tendon
Explanation
The patient has sustained a spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a known complication following distal radius fractures (even nondisplaced ones) due to mechanical attrition and hypovascularity within the third dorsal compartment (Lister's tubercle). Primary end-to-end repair is generally impossible due to tendon retraction and degeneration. The gold standard treatment is an extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL tendon transfer.
Question 2938
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 48-year-old male with severe cubital tunnel syndrome is undergoing an anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve. To prevent secondary compression post-transposition, the surgeon must systematically release all potential sites of ulnar nerve entrapment around the elbow. Which of the following structures represents the most proximal potential site of compression for the ulnar nerve in this region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osborne's ligament
Explanation
The Arcade of Struthers is a fascial band extending from the medial head of the triceps to the medial intermuscular septum, located approximately 8 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle, and represents the most proximal potential site of ulnar nerve compression around the elbow. Note that the Ligament of Struthers (option E) is associated with the supracondylar process and compresses the median nerve, not the ulnar nerve. Osborne's ligament and the FCU fascia are located distally.
Question 2939
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency department complaining of a severely swollen, throbbing index finger 3 days after sustaining a minor puncture wound with a wire.
You suspect pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. According to Kanavel's criteria, which of the following is considered the earliest and most sensitive clinical sign of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexed resting posture of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs for pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform swelling of the digit, 2) flexed resting posture, 3) tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) disproportionate pain with passive extension. Among these, pain with passive extension of the digit is consistently recognized as the earliest and most sensitive clinical sign for diagnosing pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis.
Question 2940
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old manual laborer presents with progressive dorsal wrist pain and weakened grip strength over the past 6 months. Radiographs demonstrate increased sclerosis and early collapse of the lunate, without fixed scaphoid rotation or adjacent carpal arthritis. Ulnar variance is measured at -3 mm.
The patient is diagnosed with Lichtman Stage II Kienbock's disease. Which of the following surgical interventions is the most appropriate primary joint leveling procedure to unload the lunate in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
This patient has Lichtman Stage II Kienbock's disease (lunate sclerosis without fixed collapse/scaphoid rotation) and negative ulnar variance. A joint leveling procedure is indicated to unload the radiolunate articulation. Radial shortening osteotomy is the gold standard in this scenario. Ulnar lengthening is theoretically possible but is associated with a significantly higher rate of nonunion and hardware complications, making radial shortening the preferred procedure.
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