This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2861
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The scaphoid is at high risk for avascular necrosis following fracture due to its retrograde blood supply. Which vessel provides the primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Palmar carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply via retrograde flow from branches of the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. These vessels enter at the dorsal ridge near the distal pole and run proximally, placing proximal pole fractures at high risk for avascular necrosis.
Question 2862
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient presents with an inability to form the 'OK' sign, demonstrating extended interphalangeal joints of the thumb and index finger. This deficit localizes to the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN). Which of the following muscles is innervated by this nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
The AIN is a motor branch of the median nerve that innervates the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), the pronator quadratus, and the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index and middle fingers.
Question 2863
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with ulnar nerve palsy secondary to a ganglion cyst compressing Guyon's canal. What structure forms the floor of Guyon's canal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar carpal ligament
Explanation
The floor of Guyon's canal is formed by the flexor retinaculum (transverse carpal ligament) and the pisohamate ligament. The roof is formed by the volar carpal ligament.
Question 2864
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following describes the correct origin and innervation of the 3rd lumbrical muscle in the hand?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unipennate origin from FDP, innervated by the median nerve
Explanation
The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are unipennate and innervated by the median nerve. The 3rd and 4th lumbricals are bipennate (originating from adjacent FDP tendons) and are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
Question 2865
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The Arcade of Frohse is a frequent site of compression for the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). This structure represents the proximal fibrous edge of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Explanation
The Arcade of Frohse is the thickened proximal aponeurotic edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle. It is the most common site of PIN entrapment in radial tunnel syndrome.
Question 2866
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following tendons does NOT pass through the primary compartment of the carpal tunnel?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
The flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon runs in its own separate fibro-osseous tunnel enclosed by a split in the transverse carpal ligament, rather than within the main carpal tunnel.
Question 2867
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old woman undergoes an open carpal tunnel release. Postoperatively, she reports a new inability to palmar abduct her thumb, despite intact sensation over the thenar eminence and volar digits. An iatrogenic injury to the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve is suspected. According to the most common anatomical variation (extraligamentous type), how does this branch course to innervate the thenar muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It branches proximal to the carpal tunnel and runs superficial to the transverse carpal ligament
Explanation
According to Lanz's classification, the extraligamentous type is the most common anatomical variation of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve (seen in over 50% of cases). It branches distal to the transverse carpal ligament and hooks back recurrently to innervate the thenar musculature.
Question 2868
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 40-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand, sustaining a volar Barton's fracture of the distal radius. What is the pathognomonic feature of this fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal displacement of the distal fragment
Explanation
A volar Barton's fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the volar margin of the distal radius with associated volar subluxation of the carpus along with the fracture fragment.
Question 2869
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 22-year-old athlete sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. What is the primary reason for the high rate of avascular necrosis in this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. High incidence of associated perilunate dislocations
Explanation
The major blood supply to the scaphoid enters distally and flows retrogradely to the proximal pole. Fractures at the proximal pole disrupt this retrograde flow, predisposing the fragment to ischemia and avascular necrosis.
Question 2870
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female presents with an inability to extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated with cast immobilization. She reports a sudden, painless loss of motion while grasping a jar. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iatrogenic nerve injury during cast application
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is a well-known complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures. It occurs secondary to vascular watershed ischemia and increased pressure within the intact third dorsal compartment.
Question 2871
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old athlete sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. The treating orthopedic surgeon counsels the patient on the high risk of nonunion and avascular necrosis. This risk is primarily due to the blood supply originating from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. The blood vessels enter the scaphoid at the distal pole and flow in a retrograde fashion, placing proximal pole fractures at high risk for avascular necrosis.
Question 2872
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 32-year-old man sustains a Galeazzi fracture-dislocation. Following anatomic open reduction and internal fixation of the radial shaft, intraoperative evaluation reveals that the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) remains unstable in supination. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfixation of the DRUJ with a K-wire in supination
Explanation
If the DRUJ remains unstable after anatomic fixation of the radius in a Galeazzi fracture, it should be transfixed with a K-wire in the position of maximum stability (typically supination). The pins are generally left in place for 4 to 6 weeks.
Question 2873
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Eight weeks following nonoperative management of a nondisplaced distal radius fracture in a short arm cast, a 60-year-old woman reports the sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most likely etiology of her new deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unrecognized scaphoid fracture
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is a well-known complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures. It occurs secondary to mechanical attrition or local ischemia within the unreleased third extensor compartment.
Question 2874
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman undergoes volar plate fixation for a distal radius fracture. Six months later, she suddenly loses the ability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nonunion of the distal radius fracture
Explanation
Prominence of a volar plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius can cause attritional wear and subsequent rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon. This presents as a loss of active thumb IP joint flexion.
Question 2875
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old female treated non-operatively for a nondisplaced distal radius fracture presents 6 weeks later unable to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. Tenodesis effect is absent. What is the most appropriate and reliable surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the EPL tendon
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is a classic complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures due to ischemia or attrition in the third dorsal compartment. Because the tendon ends retract and degenerate, primary repair is rarely feasible, making an EIP to EPL transfer the gold standard treatment.
Question 2876
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Four months after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate, a patient reports a sudden inability to flex the interphalangeal (IP) joint of the thumb. There is no history of new trauma. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon
Explanation
Attritional rupture of the FPL tendon is a well-documented complication of volar locked plating of the distal radius. It typically occurs when the plate is positioned too distally, protruding past the watershed line and causing friction against the tendon.
Question 2877
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Six months after undergoing volar locked plating for a distal radius fracture, a 55-year-old woman reports sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs reveal the plate was placed distal to the watershed line. What is the most likely cause of her current symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture
Explanation
Placement of a volar plate distal to the watershed line of the radius increases the risk of flexor tendon attrition and subsequent rupture. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) is the most commonly affected tendon in this scenario.
Question 2878
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Following volar locked plating of a comminuted distal radius fracture, the patient develops attrition rupture of a tendon due to prominent screws penetrating the dorsal cortex. Which tendon is at greatest risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)
Explanation
The Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon is highly susceptible to attrition rupture from dorsal screw prominence. It resides in the 3rd extensor compartment and courses around Lister's tubercle, where overpenetrating screws often protrude.
Question 2879
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 62-year-old female presents with a distal radius fracture following a fall. Closed reduction and splinting are performed in the emergency department. Which of the following radiographic parameters present on the initial injury films is most predictive of instability and secondary loss of reduction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Associated ulnar styloid fracture
Explanation
According to Lafontaine's criteria, initial dorsal tilt > 20 degrees, dorsal comminution, intra-articular involvement, age > 60, and associated ulnar fractures are predictors of instability. Volar comminution typically requires a distinct surgical approach but initial dorsal tilt > 20 degrees is a classic predictor of collapse.
Question 2880
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. What screening test is most critical to perform during the initial evaluation of this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brain MRI
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is highly associated with VACTERL anomalies, including renal and genitourinary abnormalities in up to 30% of patients. A renal ultrasound and an echocardiogram are mandatory standard screening tests.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.