This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 261
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In the classification of flexor tendon injuries of the hand, Zone II (often referred to historically as "no man's land") extends anatomically from:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The proximal edge of the A1 pulley to the insertion of the FDS tendon
Explanation
Flexor tendon Zone II begins at the proximal edge of the A1 pulley and extends to the insertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon on the middle phalanx. It is characterized by the FDS and FDP tendons running together within a tight fibro-osseous sheath.
Question 262
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Stenosing tenosynovitis (trigger finger) most commonly results from thickening and nodule formation associated with which of the following pulleys?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A1 pulley
Explanation
Trigger finger is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon and the first annular (A1) pulley, leading to catching and locking. Surgical release involves transecting the A1 pulley.
Question 263
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
When performing a surgical release for De Quervain's tenosynovitis, the surgeon must ensure complete decompression of the first dorsal compartment. Which two tendons run within this compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation
The first dorsal extensor compartment of the wrist contains the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons. Multiple tendon slips and a separate subsheath for the EPB are common anatomical variants that can lead to surgical failure if missed.
Question 264
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with paresthesias in the median nerve distribution of the hand. Which of the following clinical findings most reliably differentiates Pronator Syndrome from Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sensory loss over the thenar eminence
Explanation
The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve arises proximal to the transverse carpal ligament and supplies sensation to the thenar eminence. Thus, thenar sensation is spared in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome but is decreased in proximal nerve compressions like Pronator Syndrome.
Question 265
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture, which of the following nerves is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) runs superficially in the lateral aspect of the antecubital fossa and is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair. The PIN is at higher risk during a two-incision approach if the forearm is not fully supinated during the posterolateral dissection.
Question 266
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A patient is diagnosed with an acute complete rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the thumb (Skier's thumb). A Stener lesion is suspected, which mandates surgical intervention. A Stener lesion occurs when the torn UCL displaces superficial to the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
Explanation
A Stener lesion occurs when the distally avulsed thumb ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) flips back and is trapped superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This prevents healing and is a definitive indication for surgical repair.
Question 267
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. The high risk of avascular necrosis in this fracture pattern is primarily due to the retrograde blood supply derived from which of the following arteries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters distally and flows in a retrograde fashion. A proximal pole fracture interrupts this supply, predisposing the proximal fragment to avascular necrosis.
Question 268
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a fracture. Radiographs and clinical presentation are consistent with a posterolaterally displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture.
Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with this specific direction of displacement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve (Anterior interosseous nerve branch)
Explanation
In a posterolaterally displaced supracondylar fracture, the proximal fragment displaces anteromedially, placing the median nerve (specifically its anterior interosseous branch) and the brachial artery at the greatest risk of injury.
Question 269
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In Zone II flexor tendon injuries of the hand, the blood supply to the flexor tendons within the digital synovial sheath is primarily provided by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The vincula brevia and longa
Explanation
Within the relatively avascular Zone II digital sheath, the flexor tendons receive their intrinsic blood supply dorsally via the vincula brevia and longa, supplemented by synovial diffusion.
Question 270
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following clinical provocative tests has the highest reported sensitivity for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Durkan's carpal compression test
Explanation
Durkan's carpal compression test, which involves applying direct pressure over the carpal tunnel, has the highest sensitivity (often >85%) among physical exam maneuvers for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 271
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old carpenter with chronic medial elbow pain that worsens with resisted forearm pronation and wrist flexion has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. During surgical debridement of the common flexor origin, which of the following nerves is most at risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve
Explanation
Medial epicondylitis involves the common flexor origin. The ulnar nerve courses directly posterior to the medial epicondyle in the cubital tunnel, making it highly susceptible to injury during surgical debridement of this area.
Question 272
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient with long-standing cubital tunnel syndrome presents with weakness in their pinch grip. During evaluation, the patient forcefully flexes the interphalangeal joint of the thumb when attempting to hold a piece of paper between the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Froment sign
Explanation
Froment sign occurs when a patient compensates for a weak adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve innervated) by using the flexor pollicis longus (anterior interosseous nerve innervated) to flex the IP joint during a key pinch. Wartenberg sign is the abducted posture of the small finger.
Question 273
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
An adult patient undergoes rigid plate fixation of the radial shaft for a Galeazzi fracture. Intraoperatively, following radius fixation, the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) is tested and found to be grossly unstable in all forearm positions (pronation, neutral, and supination). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transverse K-wire fixation of the DRUJ in neutral or supination
Explanation
If the DRUJ remains grossly unstable in all positions after anatomic fixation of the radius in a Galeazzi fracture, the joint should be reduced and percutaneously pinned with K-wires (ulna to radius) for 4-6 weeks to allow the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) to heal.
Question 274
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Diagnosis of this condition is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Klumpke's palsy
Explanation
This is a case of obstetric brachial plexus injury involving the C8, T1 roots (Klumpke's palsy). Erb's palsy involves upper roots only. Combined nerve injuries can present in a similar fashion, however low ulnar and median nerve lesions will not have weakness of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor digitorum sublimis. History of a large baby, shoulder dystocia, and clavicle fracture point to difficult labor. The most common type of brachial plexus injury related to birth is Erb's palsy, which is usually associated with a breech presentation. Isolated Klumpke's palsy is quite rare and the involvement of C8 and T1 usually occurs as part of global plexus injury.
Question 275
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. The level of the lesion in this patient is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Postganglionic lesion
Explanation
It is difficult to clinically differentiate between a pre- and postganglionic lesion of C8, T1 in a child. Absence of Horner's syndrome and hemi-diaphragmatic palsy in this case indicates that this is not a preganglionic lesion. The ability of the patient to hold his head suggests that the paravertebral muscles are functional, as is true in postganglionic lesions.
Question 276
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patients right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horners syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Appropriate surgical management in this case is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Exploration and nerve grafting
Explanation
Neurotization is done for preganglionic lesions and has not been shown to produce successful results for lower root involvement. At 18 months, exploration and nerve grafting must be carried out. Neurolysis is reserved for cases in which recovery is partial or plateaus. Tendon transfers in children less than 3 years old do not work as well. Younger children do not cooperate well in rehabilitation. It is also difficult to decide upon the functioning motors for transfer.
Question 277
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of 5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patient's right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Horner's syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent. Reconstructive surgery includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thumb opposition
Explanation
This patient has developed contractures of first web space, which will not respond to passive stretching. Fusion of the MP joint is unnecessary, as tendon transfers will provide lateral and tip pinch as well as opposition.
Question 278
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which mechanism and long-term deformity is most often associated with a dorsal avulsion fracture at the base of the middle phalanx:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal PIP joint dislocation and boutonniere deformity
Explanation
Three types of PIP joint dislocations are identified: volar, dorsal, and central depression. Volar PIP joint dislocations result in avulsion of the dorsal fragment of the base of the middle phalanx, which represents the central tendons attachment. If displacement persists, than a boutonniere deformity may result. Volar avulsion fractures of the PIP joint are often due to a hyperextension injury at the attachment of the volar plate.
Question 279
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old man fell off his bike and sustained a fall onto his outstretched hand. He experiences thumb and index finger numbness. Attempts at reduction of his grade I open extra-articular distal radius fracture are unsuccessful. The next appropriate step of management is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incision and drainage, open reduction with internal fixation, and carpal tunnel release
Explanation
A patient with this injury represents a high-energy fracture in a high demand individual. The patient will require incision and drainage of his open wound, open reduction with internal fixation, and carpal tunnel release. Bone grafting would not be appropriate in a patient with open fracture.
Question 280
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following is the most common carpal coalition in the hand:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lunotriquetral
Explanation
Lunotriquetral coalition has a 1.6% prevalence in the general population. The second most common coalition is the capitohamate. Incomplete coalition is treated by arthrodesis of the lunotriquetral joint.
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