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Question 2581

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

An anterior single-incision approach to distal biceps tendon repair places which of the following nerves at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during the single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is classically at higher risk during a two-incision approach.

Question 2582

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman presents with a highly comminuted, intra-articular fracture of the distal radius. Radiographs show a distinct volar marginal fragment that has subluxated palmarly with the carpus. When plating this specific fracture pattern, what is the most critical biomechanical principle for stabilization?

. Compression plating of the dorsal cortex
. Tension band wiring
. Volar buttress plating
. Bridge plating extending to the metacarpals
. Intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar buttress plating


Explanation

A volar shear fracture of the distal radius (Volar Barton's fracture) represents an inherently unstable injury due to carpal subluxation. It requires an open reduction and volar buttress plating to mechanically counteract the proximal and palmar shearing forces.

Question 2583

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

The proximal pole of the scaphoid is highly susceptible to avascular necrosis following a fracture due to its unique retrograde blood supply. Which of the following arteries provides the primary vascularity to the proximal pole?

. Volar carpal branch of the radial artery
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
. Superficial palmar arch
. Deep palmar arch
. Anterior interosseous artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery


Explanation

The dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery enters the scaphoid at the dorsal ridge and supplies the proximal 80% of the bone via a precarious retrograde flow.

Question 2584

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old man presents with acute median neuropathy after falling onto an extended wrist. Radiographs show volar displacement of the lunate (perilunate dislocation). According to the Mayfield classification, what is the initial ligament to fail in this progressive instability pattern?

. Lunotriquetral ligament
. Scapholunate ligament
. Capitohamate ligament
. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
. Radioscaphocapitate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scapholunate ligament


Explanation

Mayfield described a progressive sequence of perilunate instability that strictly begins with the disruption of the scapholunate ligament (Stage I), progressing to capitate, triquetral, and finally lunate dislocation.

Question 2585

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

When stabilizing a dorsally comminuted distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate, what is the primary biomechanical advantage provided by the distal locking screws?

. They rely on dynamic compression between the plate and volar cortex
. They act as a fixed-angle construct to support subchondral bone and resist dorsal tilt
. They dynamically compress the dorsal fracture fragments
. They require bicortical purchase for maximal axial load support
. They increase friction at the bone-plate interface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. They act as a fixed-angle construct to support subchondral bone and resist dorsal tilt


Explanation

Volar locking plates utilize threaded screw heads that lock into the plate, creating a fixed-angle construct. This acts as a subchondral raft to support the joint surface and prevent late dorsal collapse without needing bicortical purchase.

Question 2586

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman was treated in a cast for a non-displaced distal radius fracture 6 weeks ago. She now presents with a sudden, painless inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Primary end-to-end tendon repair
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) to EPL tendon transfer
. Tendon graft using the palmaris longus
. Release of the first dorsal compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer


Explanation

EPL rupture is a known complication of non-displaced distal radius fractures due to ischemia or attrition at Lister's tubercle. Because the tendon ends are typically retracted and degenerated, primary repair is rarely possible, making EIP to EPL transfer the gold standard.

Question 2587

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic right wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid arthritic changes, but the capitolunate joint is preserved. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment to relieve pain while best preserving his grip strength?

. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Four-corner arthrodesis with scaphoid excision
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Scaphoid open reduction and internal fixation with bone grafting
. Radial styloidectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Four-corner arthrodesis with scaphoid excision


Explanation

This patient has Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) stage II. Four-corner fusion is preferred over proximal row carpectomy (PRC) in young, heavy laborers as it better preserves grip strength and relies on the spared radiolunate articulation.

Question 2588

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During surgical fasciectomy for Dupuytren's contracture, the neurovascular bundle is at risk of iatrogenic injury. The spiral cord is known to displace the neurovascular bundle in which of the following directions?

. Central, deep, and distal
. Central, superficial, and proximal
. Lateral, deep, and proximal
. Lateral, superficial, and distal
. Medial, deep, and distal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central, superficial, and proximal


Explanation

The spiral cord draws the neurovascular bundle centrally, superficially, and proximally. This pathoanatomy makes the bundle highly vulnerable to injury during dissection near the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.

Question 2589

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old male sustained a closed midshaft humerus fracture and was placed in a coaptation splint in the emergency department. Two weeks later in clinic, he presents with a complete inability to extend his wrist or fingers, a deficit that was strictly documented as absent during his initial ED exam. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the nerve
. Obtain an EMG and nerve conduction study
. Observation and conversion to a functional fracture brace
. MRI of the humerus without contrast
. Corticosteroid injection into the radial tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the nerve


Explanation

A secondary radial nerve palsy that develops after a closed reduction, splinting, or bracing of a humeral shaft fracture is a classic indication for surgical exploration. This is to ensure the nerve has not been entrapped within the fracture site.

Question 2590

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A surgeon is performing a single-incision anterior approach to repair an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. Which of the following nerves is at the greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during this specific approach?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC)
. Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC)


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. In contrast, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at higher risk during a two-incision approach if retractors are placed improperly.

Question 2591

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old female presents with severe basilar thumb pain and a positive grind test. In primary osteoarthritis of the thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) joint, which muscle acts as the primary deforming force leading to proximal, radial, and dorsal subluxation of the first metacarpal base?

. Adductor pollicis
. Abductor pollicis longus
. Extensor pollicis brevis
. Extensor pollicis longus
. Flexor carpi radialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abductor pollicis longus


Explanation

The abductor pollicis longus (APL) inserts on the dorsal-radial base of the first metacarpal. As the anterior oblique ligament (beak ligament) attenuates in CMC arthritis, the APL pulls the metacarpal shaft proximally, radially, and dorsally.

Question 2592

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old man presents with advanced scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) wrist. During surgical planning, the surgeon relies on the fact that a specific carpal articulation is characteristically spared from degenerative changes due to its concentric spherical anatomy. Which joint is this?

. Radioscaphoid joint
. Capitolunate joint
. Radiolunate joint
. Scaphotrapezial joint
. Lunotriquetral joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiolunate joint


Explanation

In a SLAC wrist, the radiolunate joint is characteristically spared from arthritis because of its congruent, spherical articulation that does not experience abnormal shear forces. This sparing is the biomechanical basis for performing a four-corner fusion.

Question 2593

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 24-year-old gymnast falls from a height onto an extended, ulnar-deviated wrist. A lateral radiograph demonstrates the 'spilled teacup' sign with volar displacement of the lunate. She complains of severe pain and tingling in her thumb, index, and middle fingers. What is the most critical initial step in management?

. Immediate diagnostic wrist arthroscopy
. Emergent closed reduction and splinting
. Open carpal tunnel release without reduction
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Four-corner arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent closed reduction and splinting


Explanation

The patient has sustained a lunate dislocation complicated by acute median nerve compression. The most critical initial step is an emergent closed reduction to restore carpal alignment, decompress the median nerve, and relieve tension on the carpal blood supply before definitive surgical stabilization.

Question 2594

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 60-year-old mechanic presents with intrinsic muscle wasting of the hand, a positive Froment sign, and numbness in the small and ulnar half of the ring fingers. He is diagnosed with severe cubital tunnel syndrome. Which structure typically forms the anatomical roof of the cubital tunnel?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament
. Ligament of Struthers
. Lacertus fibrosus
. Deep flexor-pronator aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osborne's ligament


Explanation

The roof of the cubital tunnel is formed by the cubital tunnel retinaculum, also known as Osborne's ligament or the arcuate ligament. It bridges the medial epicondyle to the olecranon.

Question 2595

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old carpenter lacerates his index finger flexor tendons in Zone II. During surgical repair, strict adherence to the flexor pulley system anatomy is required. Preservation or reconstruction of which of the following pulleys is most critical to prevent significant tendon bowstringing?

. A1
. A2
. A3
. C1
. A5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A2


Explanation

The A2 and A4 pulleys are the most mechanically important pulleys in the digital flexor sheath. Loss of the A2 pulley, which arises from the proximal phalanx, leads to significant bowstringing and loss of active flexion excursion.

Question 2596

Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain and is diagnosed with scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). Radiographs reveal arthritis sparing the radiolunate joint but involving the midcarpal joint. According to the SNAC staging system, Stage II disease is characterized by degenerative changes specifically involving which of the following joints?
. Radioscaphoid joint
. Scaphocapitate joint
. Capitolunate joint
. Lunotriquetral joint
. Distal radioulnar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphocapitate joint


Explanation

SNAC arthritis progresses predictably: Stage I involves the radial styloid and distal scaphoid. Stage II involves the scaphocapitate joint, while Stage III progresses to involve the capitolunate joint.

Question 2597

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During a carpal tunnel release, the surgeon encounters an aberrant transligamentous recurrent motor branch of the median nerve (Lanz variation) and inadvertently injures it. Weakness in which of the following muscles will most likely be observed?

. Abductor pollicis longus
. Adductor pollicis
. Opponens pollicis
. First dorsal interosseous
. Flexor pollicis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis


Explanation

The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar musculature: the abductor pollicis brevis, the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis, and the opponens pollicis. Adductor pollicis is innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Question 2598

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old laborer is diagnosed with Kienböck's disease. Radiographs reveal sclerosis and early collapse of the lunate, but normal carpal alignment (Stage IIIA). His ulnar variance is negative 2 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate operative treatment?
. Immobilization in a short arm cast
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Ulnar shortening osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

In Stage IIIA Kienböck's disease with negative ulnar variance, joint-leveling procedures such as a radial shortening osteotomy are indicated. This decreases the compressive load transmitted across the radiolunate joint.

Question 2599

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old man presents with a claw-hand deformity and profound intrinsic muscle weakness. When asked to pinch a piece of paper between his thumb and index finger, his thumb interphalangeal joint strongly flexes (Froment's sign). This sign represents a compensatory mechanism for weakness in which muscle, and what is its primary innervation?

. Median nerve and Abductor pollicis brevis
. Ulnar nerve and Adductor pollicis
. Radial nerve and Extensor pollicis longus
. Anterior interosseous nerve and Flexor pollicis longus
. Posterior interosseous nerve and Abductor pollicis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve and Adductor pollicis


Explanation

Froment's sign occurs when the flexor pollicis longus (anterior interosseous nerve) compensates for a weakened adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve) during a key pinch. It classically indicates ulnar neuropathy.

Question 2600

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 60-year-old man undergoes subtotal palmar fasciectomy for Dupuytren's contracture. The surgeon carefully identifies the pathologically thickened fascial bands causing a severe proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint flexion contracture. Which of the following cords is most directly responsible for PIP joint contracture and often displaces the neurovascular bundle centrally?

. Pretendinous cord
. Spiral cord
. Natatory cord
. Central cord
. Lateral cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spiral cord


Explanation

The spiral cord is formed by the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson's ligament. It causes PIP joint contractures and notoriously displaces the digital neurovascular bundle centrally and superficially, placing it at high risk during surgery.