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Question 2361

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 42-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen right index finger 3 days after a puncture wound. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs of purulent flexor tenosynovitis?
. Fusiform swelling of the entire digit
. Pain on active extension of the digit
. Flexed resting posture of the digit
. Exquisite tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath
. Pain on passive extension of the digit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain on active extension of the digit


Explanation

Kanavel's four cardinal signs of purulent flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform (sausage) swelling of the digit, 2) flexed resting posture, 3) exquisite tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) pain with PASSIVE extension. Pain on active extension is not a classical sign.

Question 2362

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old woman presents with a pathologic fracture of the proximal phalanx of her ring finger after minor trauma. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, centrally located radiolucent lesion with stippled calcifications. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for the underlying lesion?

. Amputation of the digit
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Wide en bloc resection and structural grafting
. Radiation therapy
. Chemotherapy followed by surgical resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. Standard definitive treatment involves allowing the fracture to heal (or treating concurrently depending on stability), followed by intralesional curettage and filling the defect with bone graft or a bone substitute.

Question 2363

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 35-year-old heavy manual laborer presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate radioscaphoid arthritis with preservation of the capitolunate and radiolunate joints. A diagnosis of Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) Stage II is made. Which of the following surgical options is most appropriate to maximize postoperative grip strength for his occupation?

. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid (STT) fusion
. Radial styloidectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion


Explanation

For SLAC Stage II (arthritis between the scaphoid and radial styloid/scaphoid fossa), both proximal row carpectomy (PRC) and scaphoid excision with four-corner fusion (4CF) are surgical options. However, in a young, heavy manual laborer, 4CF is classically preferred over PRC because it generally preserves greater grip strength, whereas PRC carries a risk of progressive radiocapitate arthritis under heavy loading conditions.

Question 2364

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old female sustains a comminuted intra-articular distal radius fracture. CT scan reveals a separate, small, displaced volar-ulnar corner fragment (volar lunate facet). If this specific fragment is not captured securely during internal fixation, the patient is at highest risk for which of the following complications?

. Dorsal subluxation of the scaphoid
. Nonunion of the radial styloid
. Volar subluxation of the carpus with the lunate facet
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture
. Distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) arthritis due to sigmoid notch widening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar subluxation of the carpus with the lunate facet


Explanation

The volar ulnar corner of the distal radius (volar lunate facet) is a critical keystone for carpal stability because the short radiolunate ligament attaches here. Standard volar locking plates often fail to capture this small, distal fragment. If it is missed or inadequately stabilized (often requiring fragment-specific fixation like a hook plate or wire), the lunate—and consequently the entire carpus—will subluxate or dislocate volarly.

Question 2365

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 24-year-old male presents with persistent wrist pain 6 months after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Initial radiographs at an outside clinic were interpreted as normal. Current imaging reveals a scaphoid proximal pole fracture nonunion with sclerosis of the proximal fragment, indicating avascular necrosis (AVN). There is no evidence of carpal collapse or radiocarpal arthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Radial styloidectomy
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a non-vascularized iliac crest bone graft
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a vascularized bone graft
. Proximal row carpectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a vascularized bone graft


Explanation

A scaphoid nonunion involving the proximal pole complicated by avascular necrosis (AVN) is notoriously difficult to heal. In the absence of significant carpal collapse (e.g., SNAC wrist) or osteoarthritis, joint-preserving surgery is indicated. The best outcomes for achieving union in the setting of AVN are obtained with a vascularized bone graft (such as a 1,2-Intercompartmental supraretinacular artery [1,2-ICSRA] graft or a free medial femoral condyle vascularized graft) combined with rigid internal fixation.

Question 2366

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 65-year-old woman undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Injury to the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
. Prominence of the plate at or distal to the watershed line
. Penetration of the dorsal cortex by a distal locking screw
. Extensor pollicis longus attrition over Lister's tubercle
. Intracompartmental pressure elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prominence of the plate at or distal to the watershed line


Explanation

The inability to actively flex the thumb IP joint after volar plating of a distal radius fracture is highly suggestive of flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture. Placing the plate too distal (prominent at or distal to the watershed line) creates a mechanical block that leads to attrition and eventual rupture of the FPL tendon. Dorsal screw penetration would cause extensor tendon irritation or rupture (e.g., EPL), but EPL rupture results in a loss of thumb extension, not flexion. Injury to the recurrent motor branch affects the thenar muscles (opposition), not FPL (which is innervated by the AIN).

Question 2367

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old manual laborer presents with progressive dorsal wrist pain and decreased grip strength. Radiographs show sclerosis and fragmentation of the lunate, with negative ulnar variance. The carpal height ratio is maintained. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Scaphoid-trapezium-trapezoid (STT) fusion
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Lunate excision and silastic replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

The patient has Kienböck's disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate) Lichtman stage IIIA (fragmentation of the lunate with normal carpal height) and negative ulnar variance. Joint-leveling procedures, such as a radial shortening osteotomy or ulnar lengthening, are indicated for Lichtman stages I, II, and IIIA with ulnar minus variance to mechanically unload the lunate and halt disease progression.

Question 2368

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 50-year-old male presents with chronic wrist pain and stiffness. Radiographs demonstrate advanced Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) with arthritis at the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints. Which of the following articulations is classically spared from degenerative changes in this condition?
. Radioscaphoid
. Capitolunate
. Radiolunate
. Scaphotrapezial
. Scaphotrapezoidal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiolunate


Explanation

In a SLAC wrist, the pathology begins with scapholunate ligament disruption. The lunate, tethered to the radius via the strong short radiolunate ligament, remains concentrically reduced within the spherical lunate fossa. This unique congruent anatomical relationship protects the radiolunate joint from osteoarthritis, even in advanced (Stage III) SLAC wrists, allowing for salvage procedures such as proximal row carpectomy or four-corner arthrodesis.

Question 2369

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During a flexor tendon repair in Zone II of the index finger, a surgeon must manage the flexor tendon sheath carefully. To maintain the mechanical advantage of the flexor tendons and prevent clinically significant bowstringing, which two pulleys must be optimally preserved or reconstructed?

. A1 and A2
. A2 and A4
. A1 and A3
. A3 and A5
. A4 and A5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A2 and A4


Explanation

The flexor pulley system consists of annular (A) and cruciate (C) pulleys. Biomechanically, the A2 pulley (located over the proximal aspect of the proximal phalanx) and the A4 pulley (located over the mid-portion of the middle phalanx) are the most critical. Loss of these major pulleys leads to significant bowstringing, causing a loss of active flexion and decreased mechanical efficiency (increased moment arm resulting in limited excursion).

Question 2370

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

Figure 32 shows the radiograph of a laborer who jammed his thumb in a fall. Examination reveals pain at the base of the thumb and proximal thenar eminence region. Management should consist of

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 8 - Figure 116

. open reduction and internal fixation.
. closed reduction, percutaneous pin fixation, and casting.
. dynamic thumb traction.
. external fixation.
. functional bracing followed by occupational therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. closed reduction, percutaneous pin fixation, and casting.


Explanation

The radiographs are classic for a Bennett's fracture, which involves a fracture of the palmar ulnar aspect of the proximal phalanx. This fracture fragment is still attached to the anterior oblique ligament. The deforming forces that cause subluxation of the base of the proximal phalanx include the pull of the abductor pollicis longus as well as the adductor pollicis. Adequate reduction can be achieved by closed reduction, percutaneous pin fixation, and casting. The fragment is too small for secure internal fixation. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 711-771.

Question 2371

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In an acute closed boutonniere injury, what is the most appropriate splinting technique for the proximal interphalangeal joint?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 7 - Figure 12

. Static splint in 30 degrees of flexion
. Static splint in full extension
. Dynamic extension splint
. 30-degree extension block splint
. Buddy taping to the adjacent finger

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Static splint in full extension


Explanation

Rupture of the central slip of the extensor mechanism and a varying degree of lateral band volar migration are the pathologic entities in an acute boutonniere injury. Splinting the proximal interphalangeal joint in full extension allows reapproximation of the central slip to the base of the middle phalanx. Distal interphalangeal joint flexion is permitted to allow movement of the lateral bands distally and dorsally, preventing contracture. Newport ML: Extensor tendon injuries in the hand. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:59-66.

Question 2372

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 69-year-old man has a painful slow-growing lesion of the distal phalanx of his thumb. History reveals that he has had chronic osteomyelitis of the thumb for the past 12 years. The radiograph and biopsy specimens are seen in Figures 9a through 9c. Treatment should consist of

. intralesional curettage.
. wrist disarticulation.
. amputation.
. chemotherapy.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. amputation.


Explanation

The diagnosis is squamous cell carcinoma. The radiograph shows a destructive lesion, and the histologic slides demonstrate squamous cells invading bone. The preferred treatment for squamous cell carcinoma is wide resection; however, in this location a wide margin can be achieved only with amputation. Overall survival in patients with squamous cell carcinoma secondary to chronic osteomyelitis is not significantly worse than that expected for age-matched controls. Dell PC: Hand, in Simon MA, Springfield D (eds): Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 405-420.

Question 2373

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 42-year-old college professor reports persistent pain at the hypothenar eminence 9 months after falling from his bicycle. Initial radiographs were reportedly normal. Use of a wrist splint for the last 2 months has failed to provide relief. A radiograph obtained by his primary care physician prior to referral is seen in Figure 31. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 5 - Figure 85

. Continued splint immobilization for 6 weeks
. Pisiform excision
. Hook of hamate excision
. Open reduction and internal fixation with bone grafting
. Lunotriquetral arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pisiform excision


Explanation

The oblique radiograph of the wrist reveals a displaced fracture of the pisiform that usually occurs following a direct blow or sudden contraction of the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon. Persistent pain secondary to pisotriquetral incongruity and degenerative arthritis warrants pisiform excision, which does not compromise wrist flexion strength. Pisiform fractures are usually missed on routine radiographic views. An oblique or carpal tunnel view can be helpful in visualizing the pisotriquetral joint.

Question 2374

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 62-year-old woman with soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia has severe pain in the left index, middle, ring, and little fingers. History reveals that she does not smoke. The clinical history and arteriogram shown in Figure 6 are consistent with which of the following conditions?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 3 - Figure 103

. Buerger's disease
. Hypothenar hammer syndrome
. Superficial palmar arch aneurysm
. Raynaud's phenomenon
. Diabetic vasculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Raynaud's phenomenon


Explanation

The arteriogram shows generalized disease of all vascular structures. Even though the image was obtained following an infusion of nitroglycerin, little flow is present to the fingers. Based on the history of soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia, the most likely diagnosis is CREST (chondrocalcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasias). The arteriogram reveals Raynaud's phenomenon or the "R" component of CREST. Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is strongly associated with a history of smoking. Hypothenar hammer syndrome involves repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery at the wrist, resulting in well-defined filling defects in the superficial palmar arch of the hand. Although not well visualized in this patient, the superficial arch is narrowed, showing no evidence of aneurysmal dilation. Koman LA, Ruch DS, Patterson Smith B, et al: Vascular disorders, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, vol 2, pp 2254-2302.

Question 2375

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 46-year-old man has acute tenderness along the ulnar aspect of the wrist after falling on his outstretched hand while playing basketball. Examination reveals tenderness and mild swelling along the volar ulnar aspect of the wrist. Radiogaphs are shown in Figures 14a through 14c. Management should consist of

. immobilization.
. closed reduction.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. early range of motion.
. excision.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. immobilization.


Explanation

The PA view of the wrist shows a pisiform fracture. Pisiform fractures constitute 1% to 3% of all carpal bone fractures. This fracture can be further evaluated with a carpal tunnel view or a supination oblique view of the wrist. Initial management should consist of immobilization with a short arm cast. If nonsurgical measures fail, bony excision is warranted. Failla JM, Amadio PC: Recognition and treatment of uncommon carpal fractures. Hand Clin 1988;4:469-476.

Question 2376

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 72-year-old man was involved in an automobile accident 4 weeks ago. Initially he noted pain about his nondominant left shoulder, which resolved within a few weeks after the accident. He now describes trouble with gripping and carrying items in his left hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 20a through 20c. His signs and symptoms are the result of injury to which of the following ligaments?

. Volar scapholunate interosseous
. Dorsal scapholunate interosseous
. Long radiolunate
. Short radiolunate
. Dorsal intercarpal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal scapholunate interosseous


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a gap between the scaphoid and lunate bones, indicative of disruption of the scapholunate ligament complex. The three components of the complex are the dorsal scapholunate ligament, the volar (or palmar) scapholunate ligament, and the proximal fibrocartilaginous membrane, listed in decreasing yield strength. Disruption of the stout dorsal interosseous ligament is required for scapholunate dissociation to occur. Berger RA: The ligaments of the wrist: A current overview of anatomy with considerations of their potential functions. Hand Clin 1997;13:63-82.

Question 2377

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A still active 86-year-old pastry chef falls in her kitchen and notes pain and deformity of her little finger. There are no open wounds. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. What is the most appropriate management?

. Closed reduction and splinting in metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension
. Closed reduction and splinting in MCP joint flexion and PIP joint extension
. Reduction and percutaneous fixation
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Buddy taping and early range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduction and percutaneous fixation


Explanation

The fracture of the proximal phalanx is clearly displaced. There is slight comminution at the area of the fracture. Closed reduction is likely to fail due to the forces of the extensor, flexor, and intrinsic mechanisms. Percutaneous fixation, unlike open fixation techniques, avoids likely problems with stiffness. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 281.

Question 2378

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 69-year-old man sustains a traumatic amputation to the distal phalanx of his little finger while working with power tools. Radiographs are shown in Figures 27a and 27b. The patient was instructed how to perform wet-to-dry dressing changes in the emergency department. Clinical pictures taken in the office are shown in Figures 27c through 27e. What is the most appropriate management of this soft-tissue wound?

. Continue wet-to-dry dressing changes until the wound heals by secondary intention.
. Perform a volar advancement flap (ie, Moberg flap).
. Perform a V-Y advancement flap.
. Perform a thenar flap.
. Perform a cross-finger flap to the ring finger.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue wet-to-dry dressing changes until the wound heals by secondary intention.


Explanation

The clinical photographs and radiographs reveal a distal phalangeal amputation with soft-tissue coverage over nonexposed bone. This is an ideal circumstance to allow healing by secondary intention with wet-to-dry dressing changes. There are few complications and the aesthetics surpass that of any soft-tissue reconstruction procedure. Volar advancement flaps (Moberg flaps) are limited to small defects about the thumb. A thenar flap will provide good coverage; however, the results are not comparable to simple dressing changes. A V-Y flap is useful when there is more tissue loss dorsally. Jebson PL, Louis DS: Amputations, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 1947.

Question 2379

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient reports hyperesthesia over the base of the thenar eminence following volar locked plating of a distal radius fracture. A standard volar approach of Henry was used. What is the most likely cause of the hyperesthesia?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 18) - Figure 99

. Complex regional pain syndrome
. Wartenberg's syndrome
. Carpal tunnel syndrome
. Palmar cutaneous nerve injury
. C7 radiculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar cutaneous nerve injury


Explanation

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve separates from the median nerve approximately 4 to 6 cm proximal to the wrist crease and travels between the median nerve and the flexor carpi radialis tendon. It supplies the skin of the thenar region. This nerve is at risk for injury with retraction of the digital flexor tendons in plating the distal radius. Wartenberg's syndrome is compression of the superficial radial nerve which innervates the dorsum of the thumb and the first dorsal web space. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes dysesthesias of the thumb, index, and/or middle fingers. C7 radiculopathy affects the index and middle fingers. Jupiter JB, Fernandez DL, Toh CL, et al: Operative treatment of volar intra-articular fractures of the distal end of the radius. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1817-1828.

Question 2380

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 23-year-old woman sustains an injury to her right hand after falling off her snowboard. Examination reveals that she has difficulty moving her fingers. A radiograph and a clinical photograph are shown in Figures 8a and Figure 8b. Management should consist of

. closed reduction and buddy taping.
. in situ pinning.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. casting for 6 weeks.
. dynamic extension splinting.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals oblique fractures of the third and fourth metacarpals. The rotational component of the fracture displacement is well visualized on the clinical photograph, which shows scissoring of the middle finger over the ring finger. The fracture obliquity results in rotational deformity that cannot be adequately maintained and held by closed treatment. The treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 711-771. Freeland AE, Benoist LA, Melancon KP: Parallel miniature screw fixation of spiral and long oblique hand phalangeal fractures. Orthopedics 1994;17:199-200.