Question 2361
Topic: Hand Trauma & InfectionCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Pain on active extension of the digit
Practice Set 119 of 266
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Pain on active extension of the digit
A 28-year-old woman presents with a pathologic fracture of the proximal phalanx of her ring finger after minor trauma. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, centrally located radiolucent lesion with stippled calcifications. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for the underlying lesion?
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
A 35-year-old heavy manual laborer presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate radioscaphoid arthritis with preservation of the capitolunate and radiolunate joints. A diagnosis of Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) Stage II is made. Which of the following surgical options is most appropriate to maximize postoperative grip strength for his occupation?
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
A 65-year-old female sustains a comminuted intra-articular distal radius fracture. CT scan reveals a separate, small, displaced volar-ulnar corner fragment (volar lunate facet). If this specific fragment is not captured securely during internal fixation, the patient is at highest risk for which of the following complications?
. Volar subluxation of the carpus with the lunate facet
A 24-year-old male presents with persistent wrist pain 6 months after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Initial radiographs at an outside clinic were interpreted as normal. Current imaging reveals a scaphoid proximal pole fracture nonunion with sclerosis of the proximal fragment, indicating avascular necrosis (AVN). There is no evidence of carpal collapse or radiocarpal arthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a vascularized bone graft
A 65-year-old woman undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she suddenly loses the ability to actively flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this complication?
. Prominence of the plate at or distal to the watershed line
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Radiolunate
During a flexor tendon repair in Zone II of the index finger, a surgeon must manage the flexor tendon sheath carefully. To maintain the mechanical advantage of the flexor tendons and prevent clinically significant bowstringing, which two pulleys must be optimally preserved or reconstructed?
. A2 and A4
Figure 32 shows the radiograph of a laborer who jammed his thumb in a fall. Examination reveals pain at the base of the thumb and proximal thenar eminence region. Management should consist of

. closed reduction, percutaneous pin fixation, and casting.
The radiographs are classic for a Bennett's fracture, which involves a fracture of the palmar ulnar aspect of the proximal phalanx. This fracture fragment is still attached to the anterior oblique ligament. The deforming forces that cause subluxation of the base of the proximal phalanx include the pull of the abductor pollicis longus as well as the adductor pollicis. Adequate reduction can be achieved by closed reduction, percutaneous pin fixation, and casting. The fragment is too small for secure internal fixation. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 711-771.
In an acute closed boutonniere injury, what is the most appropriate splinting technique for the proximal interphalangeal joint?

. Static splint in full extension
Rupture of the central slip of the extensor mechanism and a varying degree of lateral band volar migration are the pathologic entities in an acute boutonniere injury. Splinting the proximal interphalangeal joint in full extension allows reapproximation of the central slip to the base of the middle phalanx. Distal interphalangeal joint flexion is permitted to allow movement of the lateral bands distally and dorsally, preventing contracture. Newport ML: Extensor tendon injuries in the hand. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:59-66.
A 69-year-old man has a painful slow-growing lesion of the distal phalanx of his thumb. History reveals that he has had chronic osteomyelitis of the thumb for the past 12 years. The radiograph and biopsy specimens are seen in Figures 9a through 9c. Treatment should consist of

. amputation.
The diagnosis is squamous cell carcinoma. The radiograph shows a destructive lesion, and the histologic slides demonstrate squamous cells invading bone. The preferred treatment for squamous cell carcinoma is wide resection; however, in this location a wide margin can be achieved only with amputation. Overall survival in patients with squamous cell carcinoma secondary to chronic osteomyelitis is not significantly worse than that expected for age-matched controls. Dell PC: Hand, in Simon MA, Springfield D (eds): Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 405-420.
A 42-year-old college professor reports persistent pain at the hypothenar eminence 9 months after falling from his bicycle. Initial radiographs were reportedly normal. Use of a wrist splint for the last 2 months has failed to provide relief. A radiograph obtained by his primary care physician prior to referral is seen in Figure 31. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Pisiform excision
The oblique radiograph of the wrist reveals a displaced fracture of the pisiform that usually occurs following a direct blow or sudden contraction of the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon. Persistent pain secondary to pisotriquetral incongruity and degenerative arthritis warrants pisiform excision, which does not compromise wrist flexion strength. Pisiform fractures are usually missed on routine radiographic views. An oblique or carpal tunnel view can be helpful in visualizing the pisotriquetral joint.
A 62-year-old woman with soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia has severe pain in the left index, middle, ring, and little fingers. History reveals that she does not smoke. The clinical history and arteriogram shown in Figure 6 are consistent with which of the following conditions?

. Raynaud's phenomenon
The arteriogram shows generalized disease of all vascular structures. Even though the image was obtained following an infusion of nitroglycerin, little flow is present to the fingers. Based on the history of soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia, the most likely diagnosis is CREST (chondrocalcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasias). The arteriogram reveals Raynaud's phenomenon or the "R" component of CREST. Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is strongly associated with a history of smoking. Hypothenar hammer syndrome involves repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery at the wrist, resulting in well-defined filling defects in the superficial palmar arch of the hand. Although not well visualized in this patient, the superficial arch is narrowed, showing no evidence of aneurysmal dilation. Koman LA, Ruch DS, Patterson Smith B, et al: Vascular disorders, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, vol 2, pp 2254-2302.
A 46-year-old man has acute tenderness along the ulnar aspect of the wrist after falling on his outstretched hand while playing basketball. Examination reveals tenderness and mild swelling along the volar ulnar aspect of the wrist. Radiogaphs are shown in Figures 14a through 14c. Management should consist of

. immobilization.
The PA view of the wrist shows a pisiform fracture. Pisiform fractures constitute 1% to 3% of all carpal bone fractures. This fracture can be further evaluated with a carpal tunnel view or a supination oblique view of the wrist. Initial management should consist of immobilization with a short arm cast. If nonsurgical measures fail, bony excision is warranted. Failla JM, Amadio PC: Recognition and treatment of uncommon carpal fractures. Hand Clin 1988;4:469-476.
A 72-year-old man was involved in an automobile accident 4 weeks ago. Initially he noted pain about his nondominant left shoulder, which resolved within a few weeks after the accident. He now describes trouble with gripping and carrying items in his left hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 20a through 20c. His signs and symptoms are the result of injury to which of the following ligaments?

. Dorsal scapholunate interosseous
The radiographs reveal a gap between the scaphoid and lunate bones, indicative of disruption of the scapholunate ligament complex. The three components of the complex are the dorsal scapholunate ligament, the volar (or palmar) scapholunate ligament, and the proximal fibrocartilaginous membrane, listed in decreasing yield strength. Disruption of the stout dorsal interosseous ligament is required for scapholunate dissociation to occur. Berger RA: The ligaments of the wrist: A current overview of anatomy with considerations of their potential functions. Hand Clin 1997;13:63-82.
A still active 86-year-old pastry chef falls in her kitchen and notes pain and deformity of her little finger. There are no open wounds. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. What is the most appropriate management?

. Reduction and percutaneous fixation
The fracture of the proximal phalanx is clearly displaced. There is slight comminution at the area of the fracture. Closed reduction is likely to fail due to the forces of the extensor, flexor, and intrinsic mechanisms. Percutaneous fixation, unlike open fixation techniques, avoids likely problems with stiffness. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 281.
A 69-year-old man sustains a traumatic amputation to the distal phalanx of his little finger while working with power tools. Radiographs are shown in Figures 27a and 27b. The patient was instructed how to perform wet-to-dry dressing changes in the emergency department. Clinical pictures taken in the office are shown in Figures 27c through 27e. What is the most appropriate management of this soft-tissue wound?

. Continue wet-to-dry dressing changes until the wound heals by secondary intention.
The clinical photographs and radiographs reveal a distal phalangeal amputation with soft-tissue coverage over nonexposed bone. This is an ideal circumstance to allow healing by secondary intention with wet-to-dry dressing changes. There are few complications and the aesthetics surpass that of any soft-tissue reconstruction procedure. Volar advancement flaps (Moberg flaps) are limited to small defects about the thumb. A thenar flap will provide good coverage; however, the results are not comparable to simple dressing changes. A V-Y flap is useful when there is more tissue loss dorsally. Jebson PL, Louis DS: Amputations, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 1947.
A patient reports hyperesthesia over the base of the thenar eminence following volar locked plating of a distal radius fracture. A standard volar approach of Henry was used. What is the most likely cause of the hyperesthesia?

. Palmar cutaneous nerve injury
The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve separates from the median nerve approximately 4 to 6 cm proximal to the wrist crease and travels between the median nerve and the flexor carpi radialis tendon. It supplies the skin of the thenar region. This nerve is at risk for injury with retraction of the digital flexor tendons in plating the distal radius. Wartenberg's syndrome is compression of the superficial radial nerve which innervates the dorsum of the thumb and the first dorsal web space. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes dysesthesias of the thumb, index, and/or middle fingers. C7 radiculopathy affects the index and middle fingers. Jupiter JB, Fernandez DL, Toh CL, et al: Operative treatment of volar intra-articular fractures of the distal end of the radius. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1817-1828.
A 23-year-old woman sustains an injury to her right hand after falling off her snowboard. Examination reveals that she has difficulty moving her fingers. A radiograph and a clinical photograph are shown in Figures 8a and Figure 8b. Management should consist of

. open reduction and internal fixation.
The radiograph reveals oblique fractures of the third and fourth metacarpals. The rotational component of the fracture displacement is well visualized on the clinical photograph, which shows scissoring of the middle finger over the ring finger. The fracture obliquity results in rotational deformity that cannot be adequately maintained and held by closed treatment. The treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 711-771. Freeland AE, Benoist LA, Melancon KP: Parallel miniature screw fixation of spiral and long oblique hand phalangeal fractures. Orthopedics 1994;17:199-200.