This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Wrist & Carpus. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 521
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
The Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) is the primary stabilizer of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which specific component of the TFCC is the primary restraint to dorsal and volar translation of the radius relative to the ulna?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Articular disc
Explanation
The volar and dorsal radioulnar ligaments form the thickened margins of the articular disc of the TFCC. They are the primary stabilizers of the DRUJ, preventing dorsal and volar translation of the radius over the fixed ulna during pronation and supination.
Question 522
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
The central band of the forearm interosseous membrane is critical for longitudinal stability of the radioulnar relationship. What is the predominant fiber orientation of this central band?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Originates on the radius and runs distally and ulnarly to insert on the ulna
Explanation
The fibers of the central band of the interosseous membrane originate on the radius and course distally and obliquely (ulnarly) to insert on the ulna. This orientation is biomechanically suited to transmit axial loads applied to the distal radius proximally towards the ulna.
Question 523
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon ruptures can occur following distal radius fractures. The EPL tendon typically passes around a bony prominence on the dorsal radius. This prominence acts as a pulley and separates which two extensor compartments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Compartments 1 and 2
Explanation
Lister's tubercle is a bony prominence on the dorsal distal radius. It separates the second extensor compartment (ECRL, ECRB) from the third extensor compartment (EPL), which uses the tubercle as a mechanical pulley.
Question 524
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Six months after undergoing volar locked plating for a displaced distal radius fracture, a 55-year-old female reports a sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rupture of the flexor pollicis longus tendon
Explanation
Prominence of the plate distal to the watershed line on the volar radius can cause attrition and subsequent rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon. This is a well-documented complication of volar locked plating.
Question 525
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female undergoes volar locking plate fixation for a displaced distal radius fracture. Six months postoperatively, she presents with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture from dorsal screw prominence
Explanation
Placement of a volar plate distal to the watershed line increases the risk of flexor tendon irritation and rupture. The Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) is the most commonly ruptured tendon due to its anatomical proximity to the prominent distal edge of the plate.
Question 526
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female presents with an inability to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint six months after undergoing volar plate fixation for a distal radius fracture. Radiographs indicate the plate is positioned distally, bridging the watershed line. Which of the following tendons is most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor digitorum superficialis to the index finger
Explanation
Placement of a volar plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius increases the risk of flexor tendon irritation and rupture. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) is the most frequently ruptured tendon in this scenario.
Question 527
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 62-year-old woman is treated in a short arm cast for a minimally displaced, extra-articular fracture of the distal radius. Four weeks later, her cast is removed, but she suddenly loses the ability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. She has no sensory deficits. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iatrogenic injury to the radial nerve from cast compression
Explanation
EPL tendon rupture is a well-documented complication following nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures treated conservatively. It occurs due to localized ischemia within the third dorsal compartment (a watershed area for the tendon as it angles around Lister's tubercle), compounded by mechanical attrition from the fracture hematoma or callus.
Question 528
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with progressive wrist pain following an untreated scaphoid fracture 5 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid non-union advanced collapse (SNAC) pattern. Degenerative changes are noted at the radial styloid and the entire radioscaphoid joint, but the capitolunate and radiolunate joints are preserved. What is the correct SNAC stage for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage II
Explanation
The SNAC (Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse) classification outlines the progression of arthritis. Stage I: Arthritis localized to the radial styloid. Stage II: Arthritis extending to involve the entire radioscaphoid joint. Stage III: Arthritis progresses to involve the capitolunate joint. Stage IV: Pancarpal arthritis (though the radiolunate joint is often remarkably spared until very late). Because the entire radioscaphoid joint is involved but the capitolunate is spared, this is Stage II.
Question 529
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A patient undergoes volar plating for a distal radius fracture. Postoperatively, the patient develops an attrition rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon. This complication is most commonly associated with plate placement distal to which anatomical landmark?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator quadratus insertion
Explanation
Placing a volar locking plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius causes prominence of the hardware against the volar flexor tendons. This leads to friction, tenosynovitis, and potential attrition rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon.
Question 530
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 28-year-old gymnast presents with ulnar-sided wrist pain and clicking after a fall. Examination reveals a positive fovea sign. Arthroscopy confirms a traumatic avulsion of the Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) from its insertion at the fovea of the ulnar head. According to the Palmer classification, what type of TFCC tear is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Class 1A
Explanation
The Palmer classification divides TFCC tears into traumatic (Class 1) and degenerative (Class 2). Class 1A is a central perforation (avascular zone, typically debrided). Class 1B is an ulnar avulsion (from the ulnar styloid or fovea, highly vascular, amenable to repair). Class 1C is a distal avulsion involving the ulnocarpal ligaments. Class 1D is a radial avulsion (from the sigmoid notch of the radius). Class 2 tears involve degenerative wear.
Question 531
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
According to the Mayfield classification of perilunate instability, what is the anatomic sequence of ligamentous disruption around the lunate as the severity of injury progresses from Stage I to Stage IV?
The Mayfield progression of perilunate instability occurs in a specific sequence around the lunate: Stage I (Scapholunate ligament disruption), Stage II (Capitolunate joint disruption/dislocation), Stage III (Lunotriquetral ligament disruption), and Stage IV (Lunate dislocation, failing the dorsal radiocarpal ligament and extruding the lunate volarly).
Question 532
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old female sustains a volar Barton's fracture of the distal radius. This fracture pattern involves a volar marginal articular fragment that subluxates with the carpus. Which critical radiocarpal ligament complex remains attached to this volar fragment, mediating the volar subluxation of the carpus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
Explanation
A volar Barton's fracture is a shear fracture of the volar rim of the distal radius (typically involving the volar lunate facet). The volar radiolunate ligaments (short and long) remain attached to this fragment, and because the carpus remains tethered to this fragment via these ligaments, the entire carpus subluxates volarly with the fractured rim.
Question 533
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 32-year-old male sustains a Galeazzi fracture-dislocation. Following rigid internal fixation of the radius, the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) is evaluated and found to be unstable in all positions of forearm rotation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open exploration and repair of the TFCC or percutaneous pinning of the DRUJ in a reduced position
Explanation
If the DRUJ remains grossly unstable in all planes after rigid radial fixation in a Galeazzi fracture, the joint must be stabilized via percutaneous transfixation pins or open TFCC repair.
Question 534
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old female presents with a comminuted distal radius fracture and undergoes volar locked plating. During screw placement in the most distal row, the surgeon must be careful to avoid dorsal cortex penetration to prevent tendon rupture in which dorsal extensor compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First dorsal compartment
Explanation
Dorsal screw prominence past the distal radius cortex frequently irritates or ruptures the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, which resides in the third dorsal compartment.
Question 535
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Six weeks after being treated non-operatively for a non-displaced distal radius fracture, a 68-year-old woman presents with a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint. Which tendon transfer is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to Extensor pollicis longus (EPL)
Explanation
Spontaneous rupture of the EPL tendon is a known complication of non-displaced distal radius fractures. The EIP to EPL tendon transfer is the gold standard treatment to restore thumb IP extension.
Question 536
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A surgeon plans to perform a 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery (1,2 ICSRA) vascularized bone graft for a scaphoid proximal pole nonunion. The pedicle for this graft is derived from which of the following source vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous artery
Explanation
The 1,2 ICSRA is a consistently present branch of the radial artery. It courses distally on the dorsal aspect of the distal radius between the first and second extensor compartments and is utilized for pedicled vascularized bone grafts to the scaphoid (Zaidemberg's graft).
Question 537
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
When distinguishing between Scapholunate Advanced Collapse (SLAC) and Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), which of the following radiographic findings is uniquely characteristic of SNAC?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthrosis of the radiolunate joint
Explanation
Both SLAC and SNAC predictably spare the radiolunate joint (until end-stage pancarpal arthritis) and both feature progressive radioscaphoid and midcarpal arthritis. However, in SNAC, the scapholunate ligament remains intact, tethering the proximal scaphoid fragment to the lunate; thus, the scapholunate interval remains normal. In SLAC, this ligament is torn, causing a widened SL interval (Terry Thomas sign).
Question 538
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 25-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. After 6 months of conservative management, he has an established nonunion. MRI with gadolinium demonstrates no enhancement of the proximal pole fragment. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to optimize the chance of union?
Lack of gadolinium enhancement on MRI indicates avascular necrosis (AVN) of the proximal pole. In a young patient without advanced arthrosis (SNAC), attempting joint preservation is paramount. A vascularized bone graft (pedicled from the radius or a free medial femoral condyle graft) provides the highest union rates for scaphoid nonunions complicated by severe ischemia or AVN.
Question 539
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 35-year-old male presents with wrist pain 8 years after a scaphoid fracture. Radiographs show radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis, but the radiolunate and lunotriquetral joints are spared. The diagnosis is SNAC Stage III. What is the most appropriate motion-preserving procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
Explanation
SNAC III involves radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis. Proximal row carpectomy is contraindicated due to capitolunate degeneration; therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion is the preferred motion-preserving treatment.
Question 540
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
In the progression of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC), which of the following joints is typically the last to be involved or remains definitively spared compared to SLAC arthritis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioscaphoid joint
Explanation
In both SLAC and SNAC wrists, the radiolunate joint is characteristically spared due to the congruent spherical articulation and absence of abnormal shear forces. Arthritis progresses through the radioscaphoid and midcarpal joints before ever affecting the radiolunate joint in end-stage disease.
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