This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Wrist & Carpus. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 341
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female undergoes volar locking plate fixation for a comminuted distal radius fracture. Six weeks postoperatively, she presents with a sudden inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs confirm stable fracture fixation, but the plate is positioned distally, crossing the watershed line. Which of the following structures has most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL)
Explanation
A volar plate placed distal to the watershed line of the distal radius can irritate and eventually cause attrition rupture of the flexor tendons. The Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) tendon is the most commonly injured tendon in this scenario due to its proximity to the volar prominent hardware. Conversely, Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) rupture is classically associated with prominent dorsal screws or undisplaced distal radius fractures treated non-operatively.
Question 342
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced distal radius fracture. At her 6-week postoperative visit, she reports a sudden inability to actively flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Radiographs show a healed fracture with the plate positioned distally, volar to the watershed line. Which of the following tendons was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus
Explanation
The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is the most commonly ruptured flexor tendon following volar plating of distal radius fractures. The mechanism is typically attrition and rupture due to the plate being placed too distally, projecting volar to the 'watershed line' where the FPL tendon is in intimate contact with the radius. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture occurs due to dorsal screw prominence, but presents with loss of thumb extension, not flexion.
Question 343
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 62-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of an inability to actively flex the tip of her thumb. Nine months ago, she underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. On physical examination, she has a full passive range of motion of the thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint but lacks active flexion. Radiographs demonstrate the volar plate is positioned distal to the watershed line. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for her current condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plate removal and primary end-to-end repair of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL)
Explanation
The patient has sustained an attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon secondary to prominent hardware placed distal to the watershed line. Because this is a delayed presentation and an attritional rupture, the tendon ends are typically severely frayed and retracted, making primary repair impossible or highly prone to failure. The gold standard for reconstructing an FPL rupture in this setting is a tendon transfer utilizing the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) of the ring or middle finger. This provides an expendable, vascularized, and synergistic motor unit. EIP transfer is typically utilized for extensor pollicis longus (EPL) ruptures.
Question 344
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Six weeks after nonoperative management of a nondisplaced distal radius fracture, a 62-year-old woman presents with the sudden inability to actively extend the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. An extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer is planned. At the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger, where is the EIP tendon located relative to the extensor digitorum communis (EDC) tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar and volar to the EDC tendon of the index finger
Explanation
EPL rupture is a known complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures, often secondary to ischemia or attrition over a bony spike at Lister's tubercle. The standard treatment is an EIP to EPL tendon transfer. To harvest the EIP correctly, the surgeon must remember the anatomic relationship: at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint, the EIP tendon consistently lies ulnar and volar to the EDC tendon of the index finger.
Question 345
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 38-year-old man falls from a height of 10 feet, sustaining a severely comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture. The surgeon performs an isolated radial head excision. Six months later, the patient develops severe, progressive ulnar-sided wrist pain. Radiographs reveal 5 mm of positive ulnar variance. What concurrent injury was missed at the time of the initial trauma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) tear without instability
Explanation
The scenario describes an Essex-Lopresti lesion, which consists of a radial head fracture, rupture of the forearm interosseous membrane (IOM), and disruption of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). If the radial head is simply excised without recognizing the IOM injury, there is no proximal block to radius migration. The radius migrates proximally, causing dynamic positive ulnar variance, severe ulnar impaction syndrome, and wrist pain. In these injuries, the radial head must be replaced with an arthroplasty to maintain radial length.
Question 346
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman sustained a distal radius fracture treated with a volar locking plate. Three months postoperatively, she presents with inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs show plate placement distal to the watershed line. Which tendon is most commonly ruptured in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL)
Explanation
Volar plating of distal radius fractures is associated with flexor tendon rupture if the plate is placed distal to the watershed line. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is most commonly affected due to its direct proximity to the volar margin of the radius and the plate edge. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) ruptures are more frequently associated with dorsal screw prominence or nonoperative management of nondisplaced fractures.
Question 347
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 28-year-old male falls from a height and sustains a highly comminuted radial head fracture, diffuse forearm tenderness, and distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability, consistent with an Essex-Lopresti injury. He undergoes prompt radial head replacement to restore length. Intraoperatively, following the radial head replacement, the DRUJ remains grossly unstable in neutral rotation. What is the next best step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open repair of the interosseous membrane
Explanation
An Essex-Lopresti injury involves a radial head fracture, disruption of the central band of the interosseous membrane (IOM), and DRUJ instability. The primary treatment in the acute setting involves restoring the radiocapitellar contact and length with rigid radial head fixation or arthroplasty. If the DRUJ remains unstable after restoring the radial column, it should be closed reduced and pinned with K-wires in a stable position (typically supination) for 4 to 6 weeks to allow the IOM and DRUJ ligaments to heal. Acute open repair of the IOM is rarely performed, and distal ulna resection is contraindicated as it will result in proximal migration of the radius.
Question 348
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling on an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced volar shear fracture of the distal radius (volar Barton's fracture).
Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical approach and fixation strategy to prevent displacement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
Explanation
Volar shear fractures of the distal radius (volar Barton's fractures) are highly unstable due to the deforming forces of the robust radiocarpal ligaments and flexor tendons pulling the carpus and volar rim proximally. The most biomechanically sound method of fixation is a volar approach utilizing a volar buttress plate to counteract these shearing forces. External fixation or dorsal plating does not adequately buttress the volar articular fragment and risks subluxation.
Question 349
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman was treated nonoperatively in a short-arm cast for a nondisplaced distal radius fracture. Eight weeks post-injury, she returns to the clinic reporting a sudden inability to actively lift her thumb off a flat table. Physical examination demonstrates intact IP joint flexion but absent active IP joint extension of the thumb. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the ruptured tendon
Explanation
The patient has sustained a delayed rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a known complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures due to vascular watershed ischemia and mechanical attrition at the Lister tubercle. Because the tendon ends are typically frayed and retracted, primary repair is almost always impossible. The gold standard treatment is an extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL tendon transfer, which restores independent thumb extension with predictable outcomes and minimal donor site morbidity.
Question 350
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 62-year-old woman sustained a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated nonoperatively with a short arm cast for 6 weeks. Two weeks after cast removal, she reports a sudden, painless inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. Radiographs confirm a healed distal radius fracture in anatomic alignment. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
Explanation
This patient has experienced an extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture, a known complication of nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures. The rupture is typically secondary to mechanical attrition over the fracture callus or ischemic watershed necrosis within the third extensor compartment. Because the tendon ends are usually degenerated and retracted, primary end-to-end repair is rarely possible. The gold standard surgical treatment is an extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL tendon transfer, which provides excellent function and appropriately matches the required excursion.
Question 351
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Six months after undergoing volar locking plate fixation for a distal radius fracture, a 58-year-old woman reports the sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her right thumb. Radiographs confirm that the fracture is fully healed, but the plate is noted to be placed prominent and distal to the watershed line. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her current symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus attrition rupture
Explanation
Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture is a well-documented complication of volar plating of distal radius fractures, particularly when the plate is positioned distal to the watershed line (the distal margin of the pronator fossa). The prominent hardware causes frictional attrition and subsequent rupture of the FPL tendon. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture is more commonly associated with nonoperative management of distal radius fractures or dorsally prominent screws. AIN syndrome could cause a lack of FPL function, but it typically presents as a neuropathy earlier in the clinical course, lacking the sudden 'snapping' history typical of an attrition rupture at 6 months.
Question 352
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman is seen 8 weeks after a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated with cast immobilization. She reports a sudden inability to extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint, which occurred while lifting a light pan. Examination reveals full passive extension of the thumb IP joint but a complete lack of active extension. Radiographs show a healed distal radius fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
Explanation
The patient has experienced a spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a well-known complication of nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures. The rupture is thought to be secondary to ischemia and attrition within the third dorsal compartment. Because the tendon ends typically retract and degenerate, primary repair is usually not feasible. The standard treatment of choice is a tendon transfer utilizing the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the EPL, which provides an in-phase transfer with predictable and excellent functional results.
Question 353
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 62-year-old woman is 6 months status post volar locked plating of a comminuted distal radius fracture. She reports a sudden inability to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Radiographs show a well-healed fracture, but the distal margin of the plate is positioned directly on the watershed line. Which tendon is most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
Volar plates placed at or distal to the watershed line of the distal radius are associated with a high risk of flexor tendon irritation and subsequent attrition rupture. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is most commonly affected due to its intimate anatomical proximity to the prominent volar hardware near the watershed line. The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) is at risk from prominent dorsal screws, not volar plate positioning.
Question 354
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic radial-sided wrist pain 10 years after a fall on his outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid waist fracture nonunion with sclerosis and cystic changes. There is joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation between the distal scaphoid fragment and the radial styloid. The radiolunate and midcarpal joints are well preserved. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SNAC Stage I; Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis
Explanation
The patient has Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) Stage I, defined by osteoarthritis isolated to the articulation between the distal scaphoid fragment and the radial styloid. The proximal scaphoid fragment, tethered to the lunate, retains its normal cartilaginous articulation with the radius. Management for SNAC Stage I typically involves radial styloidectomy to address the arthritic portion of the joint, combined with scaphoid nonunion takedown, bone grafting, and internal fixation to heal the underlying fracture. SNAC Stage II involves the scaphocapitate joint, and SNAC Stage III involves the capitolunate joint, for which salvage procedures like proximal row carpectomy or four-corner fusion are indicated.
Question 355
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated conservatively in a short arm cast. The cast is removed, and radiographs show early healing with maintained alignment. Two weeks later, she returns reporting a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint. She denies any new trauma. What is the most appropriate management for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus tendon
Explanation
The patient has sustained a delayed spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a classic complication occurring weeks after a nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fracture. The rupture is typically ischemic in nature, secondary to hematoma and swelling within the tight third dorsal compartment, or due to attrition over fracture callus. Because the tendon ends are usually degenerated, frayed, and retracted, a primary end-to-end repair is rarely feasible. The standard and most reliable surgical treatment is a tendon transfer, with the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL transfer being the procedure of choice as it provides similar vector, excursion, and expendability without significant donor-site morbidity.
Question 356
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a comminuted distal radius fracture. Six months postoperatively, she presents to the clinic with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following technical errors during the index procedure is most likely responsible for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Penetration of the dorsal cortex with a distal locking screw
Explanation
The patient has sustained an iatrogenic rupture of the Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) tendon, which is the most common flexor tendon complication following volar plating of the distal radius. This typically occurs due to placement of the plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius, leading to prominence of the plate edge and attritional wear of the tendon. Penetration of the dorsal cortex would put the extensor tendons at risk.
Question 357
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A patient presents with chronic wrist pain and instability following a fall. Imaging suggests disruption of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which component of the Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) is the most critical stabilizer of the DRUJ?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Articular disc (TFC proper)
Explanation
The Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) is a crucial stabilizer of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) and wrist. It comprises several components, including the articular disc (TFC proper), dorsal and volar (palmar) radioulnar ligaments, meniscus homologue, and extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) subsheath. While all components contribute, the volar (palmar) radioulnar ligament is considered the most critical stabilizer of the DRUJ, particularly against dorsal displacement of the ulna relative to the radius. The dorsal radioulnar ligament prevents volar displacement. The articular disc allows smooth articulation, and the ECU sheath provides support.
Question 358
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 24-year-old elite gymnast presents with ulnar-sided wrist pain after a fall. An MR arthrogram demonstrates a Palmer Class 1A tear in the central articular disc of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). Following a failed trial of conservative management, arthroscopic debridement is planned instead of primary repair. What is the fundamental anatomical rationale for debriding rather than repairing this specific type of tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central tears destabilize the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) requiring bony reconstruction.
Explanation
The vascular supply to the TFCC is derived primarily from the ulnar artery branches, supplying only the peripheral 10% to 20% of the complex. The central articular disc is completely avascular and relies on synovial fluid for nutrition. Consequently, central tears (Palmer Class 1A) have no inherent healing potential and are treated with arthroscopic debridement, whereas peripheral tears (Palmer Class 1B) are well-vascularized and amenable to primary surgical repair.
Question 359
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 45-year-old patient sustains a nondisplaced distal radius fracture and is treated in a cast. Six weeks later, she presents with sudden inability to extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. The ruptured tendon normally travels in which extensor compartment, and what is its radial boundary?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Compartment 2; bounded ulnarly by Lister's tubercle.
Explanation
The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) resides in the 3rd dorsal extensor compartment. It is bounded radially by Lister's tubercle, which acts as a fulcrum and makes the tendon vulnerable to rupture after distal radius fractures.
Question 360
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture via a standard volar approach, a patient cannot actively flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb. Which tendon was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon runs deep in the volar forearm and crosses the distal radius. It can be iatrogenically injured by retractors or prominent distal plate screws.
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