This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Nerve & Tendon. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1001
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 24-year-old male sustained a C6-C7 brachial plexus root avulsion injury 6 months ago. He has absent finger and thumb extension but maintains strong elbow flexion, shoulder abduction, active wrist flexion, and intact median nerve intrinsic function. A nerve transfer is planned to restore thumb and finger extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate nerve transfer for this purpose?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve branches to flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) transferred to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
Explanation
In patients with a lower brachial plexus injury or radial nerve palsy who have intact median nerve function, a classic Mackinnon nerve transfer utilizes the redundant branches of the median nerve to the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) (or flexor carpi radialis) transferred directly to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). This is highly effective for restoring active finger and thumb extension.
Question 1002
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old cyclist reports numbness and tingling strictly isolated to the volar aspect of his right small finger and the volar-ulnar half of his ring finger. Sensation over the dorso-ulnar aspect of his hand is perfectly normal. He also exhibits intrinsic muscle weakness (positive Wartenberg sign and Froment sign). Where is the most likely site of compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Guyon's canal (Zone 1)
Explanation
The dorsal ulnar cutaneous nerve branches off the ulnar nerve ~5-8 cm proximal to the wrist. Because his dorso-ulnar sensation is preserved, the lesion must be at or distal to the wrist (Guyon's canal). Guyon's canal has 3 zones. Zone 1 (proximal to bifurcation) contains both motor and sensory fibers. Zone 2 contains only the deep motor branch. Zone 3 contains only the superficial sensory branch. Since he has BOTH sensory (volar digits) and motor deficits, the compression is in Zone 1.
Question 1003
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an exploration of a Zone II flexor tendon injury, the anatomical relationship of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) is evaluated. At what anatomical level does the FDS tendon bifurcate to allow the FDP tendon to pass superficially?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A2 pulley
Explanation
The FDS tendon bifurcates at the level of the A1 pulley, allowing the FDP to pass superficially. The two slips of the FDS then reunite dorsal to the FDP tendon at Camper's chiasm, which is located at the level of the A2 pulley, before finally inserting on the middle phalanx.
Question 1004
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During the physical examination of a patient with severe cubital tunnel syndrome, the examiner observes that the patient's small finger rests in a persistently abducted position. This finding (Wartenberg's sign) is caused by the unopposed action of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Third palmar interosseous
Explanation
Wartenberg's sign is the persistent abduction of the small finger seen in severe ulnar neuropathy. It occurs because the ulnar-innervated third palmar interosseous muscle (which normally adducts the small finger) is weak, leaving the radial-innervated extensor digiti minimi (and the extensor digitorum communis to the small finger) unopposed. These extensors have a naturally abducted line of pull.
Question 1005
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During a nerve conduction study for suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, the neurologist identifies a Martin-Gruber anastomosis. This anatomic variant involves a neural communication in the forearm transferring fibers from the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve to the ulnar nerve
Explanation
A Martin-Gruber anastomosis is an anomalous neural connection in the forearm where motor fibers cross from the median nerve (often via the anterior interosseous nerve branch) to the ulnar nerve. This can result in intrinsic hand muscles being innervated by fibers that originated from the median nerve, complicating the clinical evaluation of nerve injuries.
Question 1006
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old carpenter complains of numbness in his ring and small fingers, and progressive hand weakness. Examination shows intrinsic muscle wasting, a positive Froment's sign, and a positive Tinel's sign at the elbow. Which of the following anatomical structures is the most common site of compression for this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osborne's ligament
Explanation
The patient has cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar nerve compression at the elbow). The most common site of ulnar nerve entrapment in this region is the cubital tunnel retinaculum, also known as Osborne's ligament, which spans between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon.
Question 1007
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 35-year-old avid cyclist complains of numbness in his ring and small fingers, and weakness with finger abduction. However, he has completely normal sensation over the dorso-ulnar aspect of his hand. Examination reveals a positive Froment's sign. Where is the most likely anatomic site of neural compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Guyon's canal
Explanation
The dorsal ulnar cutaneous nerve branches off the main ulnar nerve proximal to the wrist (roughly 5-8 cm proximal to the ulnar styloid). Preservation of dorso-ulnar sensation with concurrent ulnar motor (positive Froment's sign) and sensory deficits in the palmar digits indicates a distal lesion, classically at Guyon's canal ('cyclist\'s palsy'). Compression at the elbow (cubital tunnel) would typically affect the dorsal sensory branch.
Question 1008
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient with advanced rheumatoid arthritis presents with a classic swan neck deformity of the ring finger. This specific deformity is morphologically defined by which of the following joint positions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hyperextension of the PIP joint and flexion of the DIP joint
Explanation
A swan neck deformity consists of proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint hyperextension combined with distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint flexion. It is typically initiated by volar plate attenuation at the PIP joint or extreme intrinsic muscle tightness.
Question 1009
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old girl sustains a widely displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. Upon reduction and pinning, she is unable to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint or index finger distal interphalangeal joint. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. It classically presents with the inability to form an "OK" sign due to weakness of the FPL and FDP to the index finger.
Question 1010
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture and presents with a complete radial nerve palsy. An EMG performed at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the brachioradialis and no voluntary motor unit action potentials. However, clinical recovery is noted at 12 weeks. According to the Seddon classification, what was the most likely initial nerve injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axonotmesis
Explanation
Axonotmesis involves disruption of the axon and myelin sheath, but the supporting connective tissue (endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium) remains intact. Wallerian degeneration occurs distally, causing fibrillation potentials on EMG at 3-4 weeks. The intact tubes allow for directed axonal regeneration (1 mm/day), leading to spontaneous clinical recovery. Neuropraxia does not display fibrillation potentials since the axon remains intact.
Question 1011
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 52-year-old female presents with night-time awakening due to numbness in her thumb, index, and long fingers. On nerve conduction studies (NCS), what is the earliest electrodiagnostic finding characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased median nerve sensory conduction velocity
Explanation
The earliest finding in compressive neuropathies like carpal tunnel syndrome is focal demyelination, which manifests as prolonged sensory latencies and decreased sensory conduction velocities. Motor involvement and electromyography (EMG) changes (like fibrillations in the abductor pollicis brevis) occur later with axonal loss.
Question 1012
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Stenosing tenosynovitis (Trigger Finger) is characterized by painful catching or locking of the digit during flexion and extension. The pathology is primarily caused by thickening and constriction at the level of which pulley?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A1 pulley
Explanation
Trigger finger is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon and the first annular (A1) pulley, which overlies the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. Surgical release involves dividing the A1 pulley while preserving the critical A2 and A4 pulleys to prevent bowstringing.
Question 1013
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A rugby player sustains a closed avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) of the ring finger. Physical exam and ultrasound reveal the tendon has retracted completely into the palm. According to the Leddy-Packer classification, what type of injury is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I
Explanation
The Leddy-Packer classification describes FDP avulsion injuries (Jersey finger). Type I involves retraction into the palm (blood supply from the vincula is completely disrupted, requiring surgery within 7-10 days to avoid tendon necrosis and contracture). Type II retracts to the PIP joint (held by the long vinculum). Type III involves a large bony fragment that catches at the A4 pulley. Type IV includes a bony fragment and simultaneous avulsion of the tendon off the fragment.
Question 1014
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient sustains a severe laceration to the ulnar nerve at the level of the medial epicondyle. Upon examination, the patient has completely preserved function of the first dorsal interosseous muscle and adductor pollicis, despite profound ulnar sensory loss in the hand. What anatomical variant best explains this clinical picture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Martin-Gruber anastomosis
Explanation
The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a communicating neural branch carrying motor fibers from the median nerve (or anterior interosseous nerve) to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm. In patients with this variant, a high ulnar nerve lesion (e.g., at the elbow) may spare ulnar-innervated intrinsic hand muscles because their motor supply bypassed the elbow via the median nerve.
Question 1015
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old carpenter presents with progressive numbness in his ring and small fingers, accompanied by grip weakness. Examination reveals a positive Froment's sign and a positive Tinel's sign at the elbow. Compression of the ulnar nerve at the cubital tunnel is diagnosed. Which anatomic structure forms the roof of the cubital tunnel?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osborne's ligament
Explanation
The roof of the cubital tunnel is formed by Osborne's ligament (the cubital tunnel retinaculum) and the overlying fascia of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). The floor is formed by the posterior band of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) and the joint capsule.
Question 1016
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During a physical examination of the hand, a patient is asked to tightly hold a piece of paper between their thumb and lateral aspect of the index finger (key pinch). The examiner pulls the paper away, and the patient's thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint noticeably flexes. This is a positive Froment's sign. Which muscle is compensating, and what is its innervation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adductor pollicis; Ulnar nerve
Explanation
Froment's sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy. The adductor pollicis (innervated by the ulnar nerve) is normally responsible for the key pinch. When it is weak or paralyzed, the patient compensates by using the Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) to flex the thumb IP joint to hold the paper. The FPL is innervated by the Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve.
Question 1017
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 24-year-old rugby player presents after grabbing an opponent's jersey. He is unable to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger. Radiographs show a small bony avulsion fragment volar to the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. According to the Leddy and Packer classification, what type of injury is this, and what is its vascular implication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II; the tendon retracts to the PIP joint and is nourished by intact vincula
Explanation
This is a 'Jersey finger' (FDP avulsion). In a Leddy and Packer Type II injury, the tendon retracts to the level of the PIP joint. It is caught by the intact vincula longus, which preserves some blood supply, allowing for a slightly delayed repair compared to a Type I injury (where the tendon retracts to the palm, rupturing vincula, making it ischemic and requiring repair within 7-10 days).
Question 1018
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 25-year-old rugby player injures his ring finger while grabbing an opponent's jersey. He cannot actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. If radiographs show a small bony avulsion retracted to the A4 pulley, what is the optimal timeframe for surgical repair to prevent fixed retraction and muscle belly shortening?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 7 to 10 days
Explanation
A Jersey finger (FDP avulsion) that retracts into the palm compromises its blood supply from the vincula. It requires prompt surgical repair, ideally within 7 to 10 days, to prevent irreversible tendon retraction and necrosis.
Question 1019
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 30-year-old carpenter sustains a zone II laceration of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP). During repair, the surgeon chooses a 4-strand core suture over a 2-strand core suture. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of increasing the number of strands crossing the repair site in the context of an early active motion rehabilitation protocol?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased gap resistance and tensile strength, withstanding the forces of early active motion
Explanation
In flexor tendon repairs, the tensile strength and gap resistance of the repair are directly proportional to the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site. A minimum of a 4-strand repair is required to safely withstand the forces generated during early active motion protocols without gapping. A 2-strand repair risks gapping or rupture with early active motion, while increasing strands beyond 4 may increase bulk and friction (work of flexion).
Question 1020
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his right ring finger. MRI confirms an avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon with complete retraction into the palm. What is the optimal time frame for surgical repair to prevent permanent muscle contracture and preserve the remaining blood supply?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 7-10 days
Explanation
This is a Leddy-Packer Type I FDP avulsion (Jersey finger) where the tendon retracts into the palm, rupturing both the long and short vincula. Due to the severely compromised blood supply and rapid muscle contraction, repair should be performed within 7-10 days.
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