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Question 81

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Stenosing tenosynovitis (trigger finger) most commonly results from thickening and nodule formation associated with which of the following pulleys?

. A1 pulley
. A2 pulley
. A4 pulley
. C1 pulley
. Palmar aponeurosis pulley

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A1 pulley


Explanation

Trigger finger is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon and the first annular (A1) pulley, leading to catching and locking. Surgical release involves transecting the A1 pulley.

Question 82

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture, which of the following nerves is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) runs superficially in the lateral aspect of the antecubital fossa and is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair. The PIN is at higher risk during a two-incision approach if the forearm is not fully supinated during the posterolateral dissection.

Question 83

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 6-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a fracture. Radiographs and clinical presentation are consistent with a posterolaterally displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture.

Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with this specific direction of displacement?

. Median nerve (Anterior interosseous nerve branch)
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Median nerve (Anterior interosseous nerve branch)


Explanation

In a posterolaterally displaced supracondylar fracture, the proximal fragment displaces anteromedially, placing the median nerve (specifically its anterior interosseous branch) and the brachial artery at the greatest risk of injury.

Question 84

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old carpenter with chronic medial elbow pain that worsens with resisted forearm pronation and wrist flexion has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. During surgical debridement of the common flexor origin, which of the following nerves is most at risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis involves the common flexor origin. The ulnar nerve courses directly posterior to the medial epicondyle in the cubital tunnel, making it highly susceptible to injury during surgical debridement of this area.

Question 85

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient with long-standing cubital tunnel syndrome presents with weakness in their pinch grip. During evaluation, the patient forcefully flexes the interphalangeal joint of the thumb when attempting to hold a piece of paper between the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?

. Wartenberg sign
. Froment sign
. Tinel sign
. Jeanne sign
. Phalen sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Froment sign


Explanation

Froment sign occurs when a patient compensates for a weak adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve innervated) by using the flexor pollicis longus (anterior interosseous nerve innervated) to flex the IP joint during a key pinch. Wartenberg sign is the abducted posture of the small finger.

Question 86

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 25-year-old male presents with a complete C5-C6 root avulsion following a motorcycle accident 3 months ago. Clinical examination demonstrates absent elbow flexion and shoulder abduction, with preserved hand function. What is the most appropriate nerve transfer to restore active elbow flexion in this patient?

. Spinal accessory nerve to suprascapular nerve transfer
. Ulnar nerve fascicle to the biceps motor branch (Oberlin transfer)
. Intercostal nerves to the musculocutaneous nerve
. Phrenic nerve to the axillary nerve
. Medial pectoral nerve to the musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve fascicle to the biceps motor branch (Oberlin transfer)


Explanation

The Oberlin transfer involves transferring a fascicle of the ulnar nerve (and often the median nerve in a double transfer) to the motor branches of the biceps and brachialis. It is highly effective for restoring elbow flexion in upper trunk (C5-C6) avulsion injuries because the ulnar nerve (C8-T1) remains intact.

Question 87

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During the clinical and electrodiagnostic evaluation of a patient with a traumatic closed brachial plexus injury, which of the following findings is most strongly indicative of a preganglionic root avulsion rather than a postganglionic lesion?

. Presence of a strong Tinel's sign in the supraclavicular fossa
. Normal sensory nerve action potentials (SNAPs) in a clinically anesthetic dermatome
. Absent SNAPs with fully preserved motor function
. Fibrillation potentials in the biceps but not in the cervical paraspinal muscles
. Rapid improvement of neurological deficits with conservative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal sensory nerve action potentials (SNAPs) in a clinically anesthetic dermatome


Explanation

In a preganglionic root avulsion, the injury is proximal to the dorsal root ganglion (DRG). Because the DRG remains intact and connected to the peripheral nerve, sensory axons do not undergo Wallerian degeneration, resulting in normal SNAPs despite profound clinical anesthesia.

Question 88

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Treatment of a type I mallet finger is typically closed. This involves:

. C ast immobilization of the affected digit in extension
. Dorsal block splint of the affected digit
. Early active motion of the affected joint
. Splinting of the affected distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) joint in flexion
. Splinting of the affected DIP joint in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Splinting of the affected DIP joint in extension


Explanation

Cast immobilization is excessive and will cause undue stiffness in the affected finger. Dorsal blocking splints, splinting in flexion, and early active motion are contraindicated in these injuries. Only the affected joint should be splinted in extension.

Question 89

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Type I mallet finger injuries must be immobilized constantly for a minimum of:

. 4 weeks
. 5 weeks
. 6 weeks
. 7 weeks
. 8 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 8 weeks


Explanation

Eight weeks of immobilization is preferred. If the finger is immobilized for a shorter period of time, the clock is reset and immobilization is started again.

Question 90

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The most common mallet finger injuries are:
. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

Type I mallet injuries are by far the most common mallet injuries. There is no such classification as a type V injury.

Question 91

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The following mallet finger injuries always require tendon repair:
. Type I and type II
. Type II and type III
. Type III and type IV
. Type IV and type V
. Type I and type IV

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II and type III


Explanation

Type II and III injuries have absolute requirements for tendon repair as there is a laceration or loss of tendon substance.

Question 92

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

After placing a type I mallet finger in a splint at the initial visit, next follow- up should be:

. The following day
. In 1 week
. In 2 weeks
. In 1 month
. At the end of the 8-week regimen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In 1 week


Explanation

After placement of the splint, the patient should follow-up in the next week to make sure the finger is still maintained in full extension. Loosening of the splint will occur as swelling decreases.

Question 93

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
All of the following may be seen with preganglionic lesion except:
. Horner's syndrome
. Hemidiaphragmatic palsy
. Positive histamine test
. Tinel's sign
. Root avulsion sleeve on myelogram

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tinel's sign


Explanation

Tinel's sign is seen with postganglionic lesions.

Question 94

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a well-described anatomical variant in the upper extremity. It involves the anomalous crossing of nerve fibers in the forearm from the:

. Ulnar nerve to the Median nerve
. Median nerve (or anterior interosseous nerve) to the Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve to the Ulnar nerve
. Ulnar nerve to the Radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Median nerve (or anterior interosseous nerve) to the Ulnar nerve


Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis occurs in the forearm when motor fibers cross from the median nerve or anterior interosseous nerve to the ulnar nerve. These fibers typically go on to innervate intrinsic muscles of the hand.

Question 95

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 6-year-old boy sustains a significantly displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On examination, he has weakness of thumb interphalangeal joint flexion and index finger distal interphalangeal joint flexion. Which nerve is injured?

. Ulnar nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. Injury manifests as an inability to make an "OK" sign due to weakness of the FPL and index FDP.

Question 96

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A cyclist presents with numbness in the ring and small fingers along with weakness in finger abduction. Sensation over the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand is preserved. Where is the most likely site of ulnar nerve compression?

. Cubital tunnel
. Arcade of Struthers
. Zone 1 of Guyon's canal
. Zone 2 of Guyon's canal
. Zone 3 of Guyon's canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone 1 of Guyon's canal


Explanation

Compression in Zone 1 of Guyon's canal affects both the motor and sensory branches of the ulnar nerve. Preserved dorsal ulnar sensation rules out cubital tunnel syndrome, as the dorsal ulnar cutaneous nerve branches off proximal to the wrist.

Question 97

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 25-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger after grabbing an opponent's jersey. Radiographs show a bony avulsion fragment retracted to the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. According to the Leddy and Packer classification, what type of injury is this?
. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

In a Leddy and Packer Type II Jersey finger, the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon retracts to the level of the PIP joint. It is held in this position by the intact vinculum longum, which preserves some of its blood supply.

Question 98

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 50-year-old diabetic female complains of locking and pain at the base of her right thumb. Examination reveals a palpable nodule over the palmar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal joint. The pathology of this condition primarily involves thickening of which specific pulley?

. A1 pulley
. A2 pulley
. A3 pulley
. Oblique pulley
. A4 pulley

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A1 pulley


Explanation

Trigger digit (stenosing tenosynovitis) is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon and the A1 pulley, leading to catching or locking. Surgical release specifically targets the A1 pulley.

Question 99

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A typical presentation of thoracic outlet syndrome is likely to include:

. An upper plexus constellation involving median nerve innervated muscles being the most common.
. Sensory loss and diminished strength at initial evaluation
. Venous obstruction presenting as edema and cyanosis progress to subclavian or axillary vein thrombosis.
. Symptoms that are present at rest and alleviated by upper extremity acitivity
. Normal somatosensory evoked potentials in the affected extremity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Venous obstruction presenting as edema and cyanosis progress to subclavian or axillary vein thrombosis.


Explanation

A lower plexus symptom constellation involving muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve is most typical of thoracic outlet syndrome. Objective signs of sensory loss and diminished strength are often not found. Somatosensory evoked potential abnormalities are common (74%), but are non-specific and may be seen in asymptomatic individuals. Although venous obstruction is rare, it may lead to subclavian or axillary vein thrombosis necessitating fibrinolytic treatment. Symptoms are usually exacerbated by upper extremity activities.

Question 100

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following statements is true?
. Spinner's sign is an early sign of anterior interosseous nerve compression.
. Electromyography/nerve conduction velocity is usually normal in pronator syndrome.
. The ligament of Struthers and the arcade of Struthers refer to the same structure.
. Forearm pronation is usually weak with anterior interosseous nerve syndrome.
. The pain of pronator syndrome is dull aching in the proximal forearm that is worse with activity and awakens patients at night.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Electromyography/nerve conduction velocity is usually normal in pronator syndrome.


Explanation

Electromyography/nerve conduction velocity is usually normal in pronator syndrome, but abnormal in anterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The arcade of Struthers describes a possible point of compression of the ulnar nerve. The ligament of Struthers describes a possible point of compression of the median nerve. In AIN syndrome, forearm pronation may be weak due to weakness of the pronator quadratus, but the pronator teres is unaffected. There is no strict correlation between the pain of pronator syndrome and sleeplessness.