This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Nerve & Tendon. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 521
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old mechanic complains of chronic, aching pain in the proximal lateral forearm without overt motor weakness, exacerbated by resisted forearm supination. The most common site of compression for the involved nerve is the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arcade of Struthers
Explanation
Radial tunnel syndrome involves compression of the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN), presenting with lateral forearm pain without motor weakness. The most common compression site is the proximal edge of the superficial supinator, known as the Arcade of Frohse.
Question 522
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old boy presents with an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. Radiographs demonstrate posterolateral displacement of the distal fragment. Which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
Posterolateral displacement of the distal fragment in an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture tethers the anterior/medial structures, placing the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) at greatest risk. Posteromedial displacement places the radial nerve at risk.
Question 523
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old girl falls from monkey bars and sustains a displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture with posteromedial displacement of the distal fragment. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve
Explanation
Posteromedial displacement of the distal fragment in an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture puts the radial nerve at the greatest risk of stretch or entrapment over the proximal fragment.
Question 524
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 7-year-old girl falls directly onto a flexed elbow. Radiographs reveal a flexion-type supracondylar humerus fracture. Which of the following nerve injuries is most strongly associated with this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
While the anterior interosseous nerve is most commonly injured in extension-type fractures, flexion-type supracondylar humerus fractures are uniquely associated with a higher incidence of ulnar nerve injury due to the nerve's posterior position.
Question 525
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 7-year-old boy sustains a flexion-type supracondylar fracture of the humerus after falling onto a flexed elbow. Radiographs show anterior displacement of the distal fracture fragment. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
Flexion-type supracondylar humerus fractures account for approximately 2-5% of cases and involve anterior displacement of the distal fragment. They are uniquely associated with a higher incidence of ulnar nerve injury, unlike extension types which typically injure the anterior interosseous nerve.
Question 526
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old girl falls from monkey bars and sustains a displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. Examination reveals she is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. Injury presents as the inability to make an "OK" sign due to loss of FPL and FDP function to the index finger.
Question 527
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old boy sustained a pediatric lateral condyle fracture of the distal humerus 2 years ago, which was treated non-operatively. He now presents with progressive cubitus valgus. Which of the following tardy nerve palsies is most likely to develop?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve
Explanation
Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture can lead to progressive cubitus valgus. This deformity stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, classically leading to tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 528
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old child sustains a widely displaced (3 mm) lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. If left untreated and a nonunion develops, which of the following complications is most likely to present years later?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve palsy
Explanation
Untreated displaced lateral condyle fractures have a high rate of nonunion, which frequently leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity. The resulting valgus stretch over time can stretch the ulnar nerve, producing a classic tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 529
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 7-year-old boy sustains an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. Neurologic examination reveals an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of his thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. It provides motor innervation to the flexor pollicis longus and the flexor digitorum profundus to the index and middle fingers.
Question 530
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old boy presents with a lateral condyle fracture of the distal humerus displaced by 4 mm. If this fracture is managed nonoperatively in a cast, what is the most likely long-term complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus varus and median nerve palsy
Explanation
Displaced lateral condyle fractures treated nonoperatively have a high rate of nonunion. This nonunion can lead to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity, which stretches the ulnar nerve and causes tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 531
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 10-year-old boy presents with an elbow dislocation and an associated displaced fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Which nerve is most commonly injured in association with this specific injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
The ulnar nerve passes directly posterior to the medial epicondyle in the cubital tunnel. It is highly susceptible to traction or direct impingement in medial epicondyle fractures and elbow dislocations.
Question 532
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 5-year-old girl sustains a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the distal humerus. If left untreated and progressing to nonunion, which of the following is the most likely long-term complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus varus and tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation
Nonunion of a pediatric lateral condyle fracture typically leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity due to the proximal migration of the un-united lateral fragment. Over time, this valgus deformity stretches the ulnar nerve, resulting in a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 533
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
When performing the standard volar Henry approach for fixation of a distal radius fracture, which structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if the dissection inappropriately strays ulnar to the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon sheath?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial artery
Explanation
The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve lies just ulnar to the FCR tendon. Retracting the FCR tendon ulnarly or splitting its sheath and dissecting radially protects this nerve and the median nerve proper.
Question 534
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient presents with the inability to form an "OK" sign, demonstrating a loss of flexion at the thumb interphalangeal joint and index finger distal interphalangeal joint. The affected nerve normally travels distally in the forearm in the interval between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor carpi radialis and pronator teres
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) is a pure motor branch of the median nerve that innervates the FPL, FDP to the index/middle fingers, and pronator quadratus. It travels distally in the forearm strictly in the interval between the FDP and FPL muscle bellies.
Question 535
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During surgical release of the first dorsal compartment for de Quervain's tenosynovitis, care must be taken to ensure all tendon slips are decompressed. Which of the following best describes the anatomy of this compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) commonly has multiple tendon slips.
Explanation
The APL tendon frequently consists of two to four slips, while the EPB usually has only one slip. Additionally, the EPB may be contained within its own separate subsheath.
Question 536
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient presents with an inability to form the 'OK' sign, demonstrating extended interphalangeal joints of the thumb and index finger. This deficit localizes to the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN). Which of the following muscles is innervated by this nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
The AIN is a motor branch of the median nerve that innervates the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), the pronator quadratus, and the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) to the index and middle fingers.
Question 537
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following describes the correct origin and innervation of the 3rd lumbrical muscle in the hand?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unipennate origin from FDP, innervated by the median nerve
Explanation
The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are unipennate and innervated by the median nerve. The 3rd and 4th lumbricals are bipennate (originating from adjacent FDP tendons) and are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
Question 538
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The Arcade of Frohse is a frequent site of compression for the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). This structure represents the proximal fibrous edge of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Explanation
The Arcade of Frohse is the thickened proximal aponeurotic edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle. It is the most common site of PIN entrapment in radial tunnel syndrome.
Question 539
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old machinist complains of progressive numbness and tingling in his ring and small fingers, worse with elbow flexion. He occasionally drops small tools due to hand weakness. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the cubital tunnel, a positive Tinel's sign, and atrophy of the first dorsal interosseous muscle. There is no Wartenberg's sign. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies confirm severe ulnar neuropathy at the elbow. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elbow immobilization in extension
Explanation
The patient's symptoms (numbness/tingling in ring/small fingers, weakness, first dorsal interosseous atrophy), signs (Tinel's at cubital tunnel), and confirmed severe ulnar neuropathy indicate significant ulnar nerve compression at the elbow (cubital tunnel syndrome). The presence of motor weakness and muscle atrophy signifies advanced neuropathy, for which conservative management (immobilization, physical therapy, NSAIDs, observation) is unlikely to be sufficient and may lead to irreversible motor loss. Surgical cubital tunnel release (either in situ decompression, anterior transposition, or medial epicondylectomy) is indicated for severe or progressive cases, especially with motor deficits. Early surgical intervention in severe cases is associated with better outcomes and less risk of permanent neurologic deficit. The absence of Wartenberg's sign suggests normal superficial radial nerve function, which is not relevant to ulnar neuropathy.
Question 540
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A rock climber presents with pain and swelling in the palm and volar aspect of his ring finger. He reports hearing a "pop" during a difficult climb. Examination reveals tenderness along the A2 pulley, bowstringing of the flexor tendons with active flexion, and decreased grip strength. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgical repair of the A2 pulley
Explanation
The symptoms (pop, pain, tenderness, bowstringing of flexor tendons) are classic for a rupture of the A2 pulley, a common injury in rock climbers. While surgical repair can be indicated for complete multiple pulley ruptures or severe single pulley ruptures causing significant functional deficit, the initial management for isolated or partial A2 pulley ruptures is typically conservative. This includes rest, ice, compression, and importantly, a specialized pulley support splint (e.g., ring splint or tape) worn during activities to prevent further bowstringing and allow healing. This allows the flexor tendons to glide more efficiently and reduces the load on the healing pulley. Corticosteroid injections are not indicated. Immobilization in extension would lead to stiffness and is contrary to the goal of allowing controlled motion while preventing bowstringing. Tenolysis is for adhesions, not acute pulley ruptures.
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