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Question 421

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 35-year-old man undergoes surgical repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture via a single-incision anterior approach. Postoperatively, he notes numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Superficial radial nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve, a terminal branch of the musculocutaneous nerve, is highly susceptible to traction or transection injury during the single-incision anterior approach. Injury results in sensory deficits along the lateral forearm.

Question 422

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 25-year-old male sustains a distal-third spiral fracture of the humeral shaft (Holstein-Lewis fracture). Which nerve is most at risk of entrapment, and what is its anatomic relationship to the intermuscular septum at this level?

. Radial nerve; passes from anterior to posterior through the lateral septum
. Radial nerve; passes from posterior to anterior through the lateral septum
. Ulnar nerve; passes from anterior to posterior through the medial septum
. Ulnar nerve; passes from posterior to anterior through the medial septum
. Median nerve; runs directly anterior to the medial septum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve; passes from posterior to anterior through the lateral septum


Explanation

In a Holstein-Lewis fracture, the radial nerve is tethered as it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum. At this level (distal third of the humerus), it passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment.

Question 423

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 40-year-old recreational weightlifter feels a sudden pop in his anterior elbow during a deadlift. Clinical examination reveals a reverse Popeye deformity and weakness in resisted supination. If a single anterior incision approach is utilized for repair, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Median nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the most commonly injured structure during a single anterior incision approach for distal biceps repair. The posterior interosseous nerve is at higher risk during a two-incision approach if retractors are placed poorly.

Question 424

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 35-year-old male bodybuilder reports a sudden, painful "pop" in his right antecubital fossa while performing biceps curls. Physical examination reveals a "Popeye" deformity and weakness in forearm supination. If a single-incision anterior surgical approach is chosen for repair, the patient is at highest risk for injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN)
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Radial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN)


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured structure during a single-incision distal biceps tendon repair due to its superficial location in the anterior approach. In contrast, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is more commonly at risk during a two-incision approach.

Question 425

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 50-year-old man requires an open capsular release for severe post-traumatic elbow stiffness. During a lateral column procedure, the anterior capsule is sharply elevated off the anterior humerus. Which neurovascular structure is at highest risk during this specific step?

. Median nerve
. Brachial artery
. Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

During a lateral column approach for anterior capsulectomy, the radial nerve is at the greatest risk of injury. The nerve courses directly over the anterior aspect of the joint capsule near the radiocapitellar articulation and can be injured if the capsule is inadvertently penetrated or poorly elevated.

Question 426

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old man presents with persistent numbness in the ring and small fingers and intrinsic weakness. EMG confirms severe ulnar neuropathy at the elbow. During an anterior submuscular transposition of the ulnar nerve, which structure must be meticulously released to prevent secondary compression of the nerve as it exits the elbow?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Ligament of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament
. Deep aponeurosis of the flexor-pronator mass
. Lacertus fibrosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep aponeurosis of the flexor-pronator mass


Explanation

During an anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve, it is critical to release the deep flexor-pronator aponeurosis. Failure to do so can create a sharp fascial band that causes secondary compression or kinking of the nerve distally.

Question 427

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 17-year-old javelin thrower reports medial-sided elbow pain and diminished grip strength while throwing. He has decreased sensation in the little and ring fingers of his throwing hand only while throwing. The sensory deficits resolve at rest. Examination of the elbow reveals no instability and full motion. He has a positive Tinel's sign over the cubital tunnel and a positive elbow flexion test. Radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Anterior ulnar nerve transposition
. Cortisone injection
. Nighttime elbow extension splinting
. Medial collateral ligament reconstruction
. Ulnar nerve decompression in situ

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nighttime elbow extension splinting


Explanation

The patient's symptoms and examination findings are consistent with ulnar neuritis/cubital tunnel syndrome, most probably exacerbated by javelin throwing. The first step includes rest and extension splinting. Surgical intervention should only be considered after failure of nonsurgical management. Posner MA: Compressive neuropathies of the ulnar nerve at the elbow and wrist. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:305-317.

Question 428

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient undergoes in situ decompression of the ulnar nerve for cubital tunnel syndrome. During the approach, the roof of the cubital tunnel is incised. What structure primarily forms the roof of this tunnel?

. Osborne's ligament (FCU aponeurosis)
. Medial collateral ligament
. Medial epicondyle
. Arcade of Struthers
. Brachialis fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osborne's ligament (FCU aponeurosis)


Explanation

The roof of the cubital tunnel is primarily formed by Osborne's ligament, which is the aponeurotic band connecting the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU).

Question 429

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 42-year-old bodybuilder feels a 'pop' in his anterior elbow followed by weakness in supination. He undergoes a classic two-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury during the posterolateral dissection of this approach?

. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at greatest risk during the two-incision approach. This risk is minimized by keeping the forearm in full pronation during the posterolateral muscle splitting dissection.

Question 430

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 24-year-old football player grabs an opponent's jersey and feels a pop in his ring finger. He cannot actively flex the DIP joint. Radiographs show a bony avulsion resting at the level of the PIP joint. What is the Leddy and Packer classification and optimal timing for surgery?
. Type I; surgery within 7 to 10 days
. Type II; surgery within 3 to 4 weeks
. Type III; surgery anytime
. Type IV; surgery within 7 to 10 days
. Type V; surgery within 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II; surgery within 3 to 4 weeks


Explanation

A 'Jersey finger' where the tendon retracts to the PIP joint level (restrained by an intact vinculum longum) is a Leddy and Packer Type II injury. Surgical repair should ideally be performed within 3 to 4 weeks before definitive tendon retraction and fibrosis occur.

Question 431

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During a single anterior-incision repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture using an endobutton technique, the patient is at highest risk for iatrogenic injury to which of the following nerves?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most frequently injured nerve during a single-anterior-incision distal biceps repair due to its superficial location and proximity to the cephalic vein. The PIN is more commonly at risk during a two-incision technique.

Question 432

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 50-year-old female presents with severe ulnar neuropathy at the elbow. Intraoperative examination reveals that the ulnar nerve actively subluxates over the medial epicondyle during elbow flexion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. In situ decompression
. Medial epicondylectomy
. Anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve
. Endoscopic in situ decompression
. Isolated resection of the arcuate ligament of Osborne

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve


Explanation

While in situ decompression is effective for most cases of cubital tunnel syndrome, a nerve that subluxates anteriorly with flexion requires anterior transposition. Leaving a subluxating nerve in situ will lead to continued dynamic friction and poor clinical outcomes.

Question 433

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During an open in-situ ulnar nerve decompression at the cubital tunnel, the skin incision is made just posterior to the medial epicondyle. To avoid painful neuroma formation, the surgeon must carefully identify and protect a sensory nerve branch that crosses the proximal forearm transversely. Which nerve is this?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The posterior branch of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) typically crosses the incision region transversely, just distal to the medial epicondyle. Injury to this nerve during superficial dissection can result in a painful postoperative neuroma.

Question 434

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

When repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture via a two-incision technique, the surgeon must avoid placing retractors forcefully against the radial neck. Which structure is most at risk of injury in this region?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) wraps around the radial neck within the substance of the supinator muscle. Overly vigorous retraction during the posterolateral portion of a two-incision biceps repair puts the PIN at significant risk.

Question 435

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During an ulnar nerve transposition at the elbow, the surgeon must carefully identify and mobilize the first motor branch of the ulnar nerve to prevent tethering. Which muscle does this specific branch typically supply?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris
. Flexor digitorum profundus to the ring finger
. Flexor digitorum profundus to the small finger
. Pronator teres
. Adductor pollicis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor carpi ulnaris


Explanation

The first motor branch of the ulnar nerve usually arises just distal to the medial epicondyle and supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). Preserving and dissecting this branch is crucial during an anterior transposition to prevent kinking.

Question 436

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A competitive cyclist presents with isolated weakness of finger abduction and adduction but normal sensation over the volar hypothenar eminence and small finger. Entrapment of the ulnar nerve is suspected at Guyon's canal. Which zone of Guyon's canal is most likely affected?

. Zone 1
. Zone 2
. Zone 3
. Zone 4
. Zone 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone 2


Explanation

Zone 2 of Guyon's canal contains strictly the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve. Compression in this zone causes isolated intrinsic muscle weakness without any sensory deficits.

Question 437

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

An accessory head of the flexor pollicis longus (Ganzer's muscle) is implicated in the compression of a nerve that results in an inability to form a proper "OK" sign. Which of the following muscles is primarily innervated by the affected nerve?

. Adductor pollicis
. Pronator teres
. Pronator quadratus
. Flexor digitorum superficialis
. Abductor pollicis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator quadratus


Explanation

Ganzer's muscle can compress the Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN), causing weakness in the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (index/middle), and pronator quadratus. The AIN is a purely motor branch of the median nerve.

Question 438

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During a submuscular ulnar nerve transposition, the surgeon must completely release the fascial roof of the cubital tunnel. After identifying the nerve, the surgeon notes the structures comprising the floor of the cubital tunnel. Which of the following forms the true floor of this anatomical space?

. Medial intermuscular septum
. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Transverse carpal ligament
. Brachialis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The floor of the cubital tunnel is formed by the posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament and the underlying joint capsule. The roof is formed by Osborne's fascia (the aponeurosis connecting the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris).

Question 439

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Electromyography of a 35-year-old woman shows an anomalous neural connection in the forearm that carries motor fibers from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve. This normal variant is most likely to confound the clinical assessment of which of the following compressive neuropathies?

. Cubital tunnel syndrome
. Carpal tunnel syndrome
. Radial tunnel syndrome
. Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome
. Pronator syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubital tunnel syndrome


Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a median-to-ulnar nerve communication in the forearm. It can mask severe cubital tunnel syndrome because ulnar-innervated intrinsic hand muscles may receive functional innervation via the uncompressed median nerve.

Question 440

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient presents with progressive weakness in thumb adduction and finger abduction, but has intact sensation over the volar small finger and normal hypothenar muscle strength. A mass is suspected in Guyon's canal. Which anatomic zone is most likely affected?

. Zone 1
. Zone 2
. Zone 3
. Zone 4
. Zone 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone 2


Explanation

Zone 2 of Guyon's canal contains the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve after it has given off branches to the hypothenar muscles. Compression here causes isolated weakness of the interossei and adductor pollicis with spared sensation and normal hypothenar strength.