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Question 301

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 40-year-old avid cyclist presents with hand weakness. Examination shows isolated profound weakness of the adductor pollicis and dorsal interossei muscles of the right hand. Sensation in the small finger is completely normal, and the hypothenar muscles demonstrate normal bulk and strength. An ulnar nerve compression is most likely localized to which zone of Guyon's canal?

. Zone 1
. Zone 2
. Zone 3
. Zone 4
. Proximal to the canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone 2


Explanation

Zone 2 of Guyon's canal contains the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve. Compression here (especially distal to the hypothenar motor branches) produces isolated motor weakness of the interossei and adductor pollicis without sensory loss.

Question 302

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 48-year-old carpenter presents with progressive numbness in his small and ring fingers, accompanied by intrinsic hand muscle weakness. Clinical evaluation suggests ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow. Which of the following structures is the most common site of compression for this condition?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament
. Medial intermuscular septum
. Guyon's canal
. Lacertus fibrosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osborne's ligament


Explanation

Osborne's ligament (the cubital tunnel retinaculum), which spans from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon, is the most common anatomic site of ulnar nerve compression at the elbow. The Arcade of Struthers is a more proximal, less common site of ulnar nerve entrapment.

Question 303

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old male presents with progressive hand clumsiness, intrinsic muscle atrophy, and a positive Froment's sign. He reports a childhood elbow fracture that was treated non-operatively. Current elbow radiographs reveal a severe cubitus valgus deformity and a nonunion of the lateral humeral condyle. What is the pathomechanism of his current neurologic deficit?

. Median nerve entrapment at the ligament of Struthers
. Acute radial nerve stretch across the radiocapitellar joint
. Posterior interosseous nerve compression at the arcade of Frohse
. Ulnar nerve traction due to progressive valgus deformity
. Anterior interosseous nerve compression by the lacertus fibrosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve traction due to progressive valgus deformity


Explanation

Nonunion of a pediatric lateral condyle fracture leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity over time. This increased carrying angle produces chronic stretching and traction on the ulnar nerve as it passes behind the medial epicondyle, resulting in a 'tardy ulnar nerve palsy.' The symptoms described (intrinsic atrophy, positive Froment's sign) are classic for ulnar neuropathy.

Question 304

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

When performing a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture, excessive traction on the lateral soft-tissue retractors most commonly places which of the following nerves at risk of injury?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) is the most commonly injured nerve in a single-incision distal biceps repair due to lateral retraction. The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is more at risk during the deep, distal part of the exposure or during a two-incision approach if dissection violates the supinator.

Question 305

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher is undergoing ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction. Which of the following technical steps regarding the ulnar nerve is currently recommended for routine primary UCL reconstructions to minimize postoperative neuropathy?

. Routine subcutaneous ulnar nerve transposition
. Routine submuscular ulnar nerve transposition
. In situ decompression without transposition unless subluxation is present
. Intramuscular transposition
. Anterior transposition superficial to the flexor pronator mass in all cases

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ decompression without transposition unless subluxation is present


Explanation

Current evidence suggests avoiding routine ulnar nerve transposition during primary UCL reconstruction unless there are preoperative ulnar nerve symptoms or intraoperative nerve subluxation. In situ handling decreases the risk of iatrogenic neuropathy.

Question 306

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

An avid cyclist presents with a 3-month history of right hand weakness. Examination reveals marked atrophy of the dorsal interossei and a positive Froment sign. Sensation is completely intact over the volar and dorsal aspects of the small finger and the ulnar half of the ring finger. Hypothenar muscle bulk is normal. Where is the most likely site of ulnar nerve compression?

. Cubital tunnel
. Zone 1 of Guyon's canal
. Zone 2 of Guyon's canal
. Zone 3 of Guyon's canal
. Arcade of Struthers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone 2 of Guyon's canal


Explanation

The ulnar nerve bifurcates within Guyon's canal. Zone 1 is proximal to the bifurcation (contains both motor and sensory fibers). Zone 2 contains the deep motor branch only. Zone 3 contains the superficial sensory branch only. Sparing of sensation and hypothenar muscles (which are innervated proximally in the canal or just before the deep branch dives) but severe intrinsic weakness points precisely to a deep motor branch compression in Zone 2, commonly seen in cyclists (handlebar palsy).

Question 307

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Which of the following physical examination findings is highly specific for distinguishing true neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) from a severe compressive ulnar neuropathy at the elbow (cubital tunnel syndrome)?

. A positive Tinel's sign at the medial epicondyle
. Numbness strictly isolated to the small finger
. Atrophy of the abductor pollicis brevis (APB) muscle
. A positive Froment's sign
. Clawing of the ring and small fingers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrophy of the abductor pollicis brevis (APB) muscle


Explanation

True neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome typically affects the lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8-T1). Because T1 fibers contribute to the median nerve to innervate the thenar intrinsics, severe lower trunk TOS presents with atrophy of both the hypothenar muscles AND the thenar muscles (specifically the APB), creating the classic 'Gilliatt-Sumner hand'. Cubital tunnel syndrome only affects ulnar-innervated intrinsic muscles, sparing the median-innervated APB.

Question 308

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

In the classic Oberlin transfer used to restore elbow flexion following an upper trunk (C5-C6) brachial plexus avulsion injury, which specific nerve fascicles are transferred to the motor branch of the biceps?

. Sensory fascicles of the median nerve
. Motor fascicles of the ulnar nerve innervating the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)
. Motor fascicles of the radial nerve innervating the triceps
. The entire medial pectoral nerve
. The thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Motor fascicles of the ulnar nerve innervating the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)


Explanation

The classic Oberlin transfer is a nerve transfer used for C5-C6 root avulsions to restore elbow flexion. It involves transferring expendable motor fascicles from the intact ulnar nerve (specifically those innervating the flexor carpi ulnaris) directly to the motor branch of the musculocutaneous nerve that innervates the biceps. A double nerve transfer (Somsak) also includes transferring median nerve fascicles (FCR/FDS) to the brachialis branch.

Question 309

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

When performing an autogenous cable nerve graft to bridge a 4-cm defect in the median nerve, standard surgical technique involves reversing the orientation of the harvested nerve graft. What is the primary biological rationale for this step?

. To prevent axonal escape into the terminal branches of the graft
. To align the blood vessels to allow retrograde flow
. To match the fascicular cross-sectional area of the proximal stump
. To inhibit Wallerian degeneration within the graft
. To accelerate Schwann cell migration from the distal stump

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To prevent axonal escape into the terminal branches of the graft


Explanation

Autogenous nerve grafts (such as the sural nerve) have multiple branching points. If the graft is placed in its original prograde orientation, regenerating axons from the proximal stump can track down these branches and escape into the surrounding soft tissue, leading to a loss of axons reaching the distal stump and potential neuroma formation. Reversing the graft ensures that any branches point proximally, preventing axonal escape and funneling all regenerating axons directly toward the distal nerve stump.

Question 310

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 22-year-old rugby player presents 3 days after injuring his right ring finger when grabbing an opponent's jersey. He is unable to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Physical examination reveals tenderness in the palm, and radiographs are negative for a fracture. Based on the Leddy-Packer classification, what is the pathophysiology and recommended timing for surgical repair?
. Type I injury; the tendon is retracted to the PIP joint; repair within 6 weeks
. Type I injury; the tendon is retracted to the palm with disrupted vincula; repair within 7-10 days
. Type II injury; the tendon is retracted to the PIP joint with disrupted vincula; repair within 7-10 days
. Type III injury; a large bony avulsion prevents retraction past the A4 pulley; repair within 6 weeks
. Type IV injury; simultaneous avulsion of the FDP and FDS tendons; immediate repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I injury; the tendon is retracted to the palm with disrupted vincula; repair within 7-10 days


Explanation

The patient has a "Jersey finger" (flexor digitorum profundus avulsion). A Leddy-Packer Type I injury involves the tendon retracting all the way into the palm. Because it retracts this far, both the long and short vincula are completely torn, severing the tendon's blood supply. To prevent severe tendon necrosis and permanent contracture, Type I injuries must be surgically repaired early, ideally within 7 to 10 days. A Type II retracts to the PIP joint (held by intact long vinculum) and Type III involves a large bony fragment catching at the A4 pulley; both have preserved blood supply and can be repaired slightly later if necessary.

Question 311

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

To restore elbow flexion in a patient with a traumatic C5-C6 brachial plexus root avulsion, an Oberlin transfer is planned. Which of the following describes the classic donor and recipient nerves in this procedure?

. A portion of the intercostal nerves transferred to the musculocutaneous nerve
. A redundant fascicle of the ulnar nerve transferred to the biceps motor branch
. The spinal accessory nerve transferred to the suprascapular nerve
. A fascicle of the median nerve transferred to the brachialis motor branch
. The thoracodorsal nerve transferred to the musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A redundant fascicle of the ulnar nerve transferred to the biceps motor branch


Explanation

The classic Oberlin transfer utilizes a redundant fascicle from the ulnar nerve (usually the FCU motor fascicle) which is transferred directly to the biceps motor branch of the musculocutaneous nerve.

Question 312

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Vascularized nerve grafts (e.g., vascularized ulnar nerve graft) are considered theoretically superior to standard non-vascularized nerve autografts in which of the following specific clinical scenarios?

. Bridging nerve defects less than 3 cm in length
. Reconstructing digital nerve gaps in a well-vascularized finger bed
. Bridging large defects in heavily scarred or irradiated tissue beds
. Repairing the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
. Performing primary nerve repair with excessive tension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bridging large defects in heavily scarred or irradiated tissue beds


Explanation

Vascularized nerve grafts maintain their own blood supply and do not rely on creeping angiogenesis from the surrounding bed, making them ideal for large gaps in poorly vascularized, scarred, or irradiated tissues.

Question 313

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 19-year-old rugby player sustains a closed jersey finger injury of the ring finger. Radiographs show no fracture, and the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon is palpable in the palm. To prevent irreversible contracture and tendon necrosis due to disrupted vincular blood supply, definitive repair should ideally be performed within what timeframe?

. 24 hours
. 7 to 10 days
. 3 to 4 weeks
. 6 to 8 weeks
. 3 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 7 to 10 days


Explanation

A Type I FDP avulsion retracts into the palm, rupturing both the short and long vincula and severely compromising the tendon's blood supply. Repair should be performed within 7 to 10 days to prevent tendon necrosis and irreversible contracture.

Question 314

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient is undergoing an Oberlin transfer for a C5-C6 brachial plexus root avulsion to restore elbow flexion. Which specific donor nerve fascicle is most commonly transferred to the motor branch of the biceps?

. Sensory fascicle of the median nerve
. Motor fascicle of the median nerve to the FCR
. Sensory fascicle of the ulnar nerve
. Motor fascicle of the ulnar nerve to the FCU
. Motor fascicle of the radial nerve to the brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Motor fascicle of the ulnar nerve to the FCU


Explanation

The classic Oberlin transfer utilizes an expendable motor fascicle from the ulnar nerve (typically the one innervating the flexor carpi ulnaris) transferred to the motor branch of the biceps to restore elbow flexion in upper trunk injuries.

Question 315

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

Six months after a Zone II flexor tendon repair of the middle finger, a patient complains that the affected digit paradoxically extends at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint when attempting to make a tight fist. What is the most likely etiology of this phenomenon?

. Rupture of the central slip
. Adhesion of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon
. Rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) repair with proximal retraction
. Attenuation of the volar plate
. Failure of the A2 pulley

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) repair with proximal retraction


Explanation

This describes 'lumbrical plus' syndrome, caused by a ruptured or overly long FDP tendon. When the patient attempts to flex, the retracted FDP pulls on the intact lumbrical origin, causing paradoxical PIP extension.

Question 316

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient presents with a Boutonniere deformity 4 weeks after sustaining a closed crush injury to the PIP joint. Which of the following describes the underlying pathomechanics of this deformity?

. Rupture of the terminal extensor tendon with dorsal subluxation of lateral bands
. Rupture of the central slip with volar subluxation of lateral bands
. Attenuation of the volar plate with dorsal subluxation of the central slip
. Avulsion of the FDP tendon with proximal retraction
. Contracture of the oblique retinacular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rupture of the central slip with volar subluxation of lateral bands


Explanation

A Boutonniere deformity results from a disruption of the central slip of the extensor mechanism, allowing the lateral bands to subluxate volarly to the axis of PIP joint rotation, leading to PIP flexion and DIP extension.

Question 317

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 32-year-old woman presents with severe, excruciating pain in the tip of her left index finger, which is severely exacerbated by cold weather. On exam, there is pinpoint tenderness beneath the nail bed. Application of a tourniquet to the base of the finger completely relieves her pain during the examination. This specific physical exam finding is known as:

. Hildreth's sign
. Love's test
. Tinel's sign
. Finkelstein's test
. Froment's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hildreth's sign


Explanation

The clinical picture is classic for a glomus tumor. Hildreth's sign is the relief of pain upon the application of a tourniquet to the ischemic digit, which is highly specific for a glomus tumor. Love's test refers to pinpoint pain reproducible by applying localized pressure (e.g., with the tip of a paperclip) over the lesion. Cold sensitivity is the third component of the classic triad for glomus tumors.

Question 318

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 50-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis develops a swan neck deformity in her long finger. The intrinsic tightness test is positive. If left untreated, what is the primary structural pathology that permits the hyperextension at the PIP joint in a swan neck deformity?
. Volar subluxation of the lateral bands at the PIP joint
. Attenuation or rupture of the volar plate at the PIP joint
. Rupture of the central slip of the extensor tendon
. Contracture of the terminal extensor tendon at the DIP joint
. Laxity of the collateral ligaments at the MCP joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attenuation or rupture of the volar plate at the PIP joint


Explanation

A swan neck deformity consists of PIP hyperextension and DIP flexion. The PIP hyperextension is permitted by the attenuation or stretching of the volar plate at the PIP joint. In RA, synovitis stretches this capsuloligamentous structure, allowing the dorsal extensor forces (often exacerbated by intrinsic tightness or MCP subluxation) to pull the joint into severe hyperextension. Volar subluxation of the lateral bands and central slip rupture cause Boutonnière deformity, not swan neck.

Question 319

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 42-year-old woman complains of severe, paroxysmal pain at the tip of her left ring finger. The pain is exacerbated by cold weather. On examination, a subtle bluish discoloration is seen under the nail plate, and exquisite point tenderness is noted. Which of the following clinical tests is most specific for diagnosing this condition?

. Hildreth test
. Phalen's test
. Finkelstein's test
. Tinel's sign
. Grind test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hildreth test


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a glomus tumor (cold sensitivity, paroxysmal severe pain, point tenderness—the classic triad). The Hildreth test is highly specific for glomus tumors: the point tenderness is assessed, a tourniquet is inflated to create ischemia, and the tenderness disappears. Once the tourniquet is released, the pain and tenderness return.

Question 320

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient with an isolated low ulnar nerve palsy exhibits a pronounced claw deformity of the ring and small fingers. A Bouvier test is performed and is positive (the patient is able to actively extend the PIP joints when the examiner blocks the MCP joints in slight flexion). Based on this finding, which of the following procedures is most appropriate to dynamically correct the deformity?

. Zancolli lasso procedure (FDS to A1 pulley transfer)
. Extensor indicis proprius to extensor pollicis longus transfer
. Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis transfer
. Brachioradialis to flexor pollicis longus transfer
. Flexor carpi ulnaris to extensor digitorum communis transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zancolli lasso procedure (FDS to A1 pulley transfer)


Explanation

A positive Bouvier test indicates that the extensor apparatus over the PIP joint is intact and functional if the deforming hyperextension force at the MCP joint is eliminated. Therefore, an MCP flexion block procedure, such as the Zancolli lasso (transferring the flexor digitorum superficialis to the A1 pulley), will prevent MCP hyperextension, allowing the extrinsic extensors to effectively extend the PIP joints and dynamically correct the claw hand.