This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Nerve & Tendon. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 221
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of a symptomatic chronic soft-tissue mallet finger of her left index finger. She has developed a swan neck deformity with a 35-degree extensor lag at the DIP joint and PIP joint hyperextension. Both joints remain fully passively correctable, and there is no radiographic evidence of osteoarthritis. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fowler central slip tenotomy
Explanation
In a chronic mallet finger with a flexible swan neck deformity, a Fowler central slip tenotomy allows the lateral bands to shift volarly, correcting PIP hyperextension while redirecting extensor force to the terminal tendon to correct the DIP lag.
Question 222
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 50-year-old male presents to your clinic 5 weeks after sustaining a closed soft-tissue mallet injury to his right small finger. He has not sought prior medical attention and currently has a 40-degree extensor lag at the DIP joint. Radiographs are negative for fractures. What is the recommended initial management for this delayed presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 8 weeks
Explanation
Soft-tissue mallet fingers presenting delayed (up to 12 weeks post-injury) still demonstrate excellent outcomes with strict, continuous DIP extension splinting for 8 weeks. Surgery is generally reserved for failed conservative management or specific bony mallets.
Question 223
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 62-year-old male presents with a chronic mallet finger of his right index finger sustained 5 years ago. He complains of significant pain, difficulty with pinch grip, and a 45-degree extensor lag. Radiographs reveal complete loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophytes at the DIP joint. What is the definitive treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. DIP joint arthrodesis
Explanation
In the setting of a chronic, painful mallet finger with advanced osteoarthritic changes of the DIP joint, soft tissue reconstructions will fail and remain painful. DIP joint arthrodesis provides stable, pain-free pinch mechanics.
Question 224
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
In the pathogenesis of a swan neck deformity resulting from an untreated mallet finger, the initial flexed posture of the DIP joint leads to a biomechanical cascade. Which of the following best describes the primary anatomic change at the PIP joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands
Explanation
In an untreated mallet finger, the loss of terminal extensor tension causes the extensor mechanism to retract proximally. This concentrates extensor force at the central slip and causes dorsal displacement of the lateral bands, eventually stretching the volar plate and resulting in PIP hyperextension.
Question 225
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 48-year-old carpenter presents with a painful locking sensation in his right middle finger. He points to the base of his finger in the palm as the site of discomfort. During surgical planning for an A1 pulley release, the surgeon must accurately identify the anatomical location of the A1 pulley. For the middle finger, where is the A1 pulley consistently situated relative to the palmar creases?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Beneath the proximal palmar crease.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states: "For the middle and ring fingers, the A1 pulley is consistently situated beneath the proximal palmar crease." This is a direct recall of the anatomical landmark provided for surgical planning.Option A is incorrectas the A1 pulley is at the MCP joint level, far proximal to the DIP joint crease.Option B is incorrectas the A1 pulley is at the MCP joint level, which is typically marked by the proximal palmar crease, not necessarily proximal to it for the middle finger. For the thumb, it's proximal to the MCP joint crease, and for the index finger, slightly more proximal to the crease, but for the middle finger, it's beneath the crease itself.Option D is incorrectas the A3 pulley overlies the volar plate of the PIP joint, not the A1 pulley.Option E is incorrectas the A2 pulley originates from the proximal half of the proximal phalanx, not the A1 pulley.
Question 226
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 60-year-old woman reports a 'catching' and 'snapping' sensation in her left ring finger when she tries to extend it after making a fist. This has progressed to the point where she sometimes needs to use her other hand to straighten the finger. The underlying biomechanical pathology responsible for this 'triggering' phenomenon, as described in the case, primarily involves:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A size mismatch between the flexor tendons and the A1 pulley, due to tenosynovial hypertrophy and nodule formation.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case clearly describes the biomechanics of triggering: "The pathological process in stenosing tenosynovitis involves an imbalance between the volume of the flexor tendon and the caliber of the A1 pulley tunnel. Chronic irritation, repetitive strain, or systemic conditions lead to tenosynovial inflammation and hypertrophy, predominantly affecting the FDS tendon. This results in the formation of a palpable nodule..." This nodule then catches on the proximal edge of the A1 pulley during extension.Option A is incorrectbecause the A1 pulley is the primary pulley implicated in trigger finger, not the A2 pulley.Option B is incorrectbecause trigger finger involves a restriction of tendon glide due to a nodule, not a tendon rupture, which would typically result in loss of flexion.Option D is incorrectbecause while chronic triggering can lead to a fixed flexion deformity of the MCP joint, the primary pathology is tendon and pulley-related, not primarily degenerative changes within the joint itself causing the initial triggering.Option E is incorrectbecause carpal tunnel syndrome involves median nerve compression at the wrist, and while it can be associated with trigger finger, it does not directly cause the mechanical triggering phenomenon in the digit.
Question 227
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open A1 pulley release for a trigger index finger, a surgeon is meticulously dissecting through the subcutaneous tissue and palmar fascia. The proper digital nerves and arteries are identified and retracted. According to the case, which specific digital nerve is particularly vulnerable during this procedure for the index finger?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The radial digital nerve of the index finger.
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe case states: "The proper digital nerves... course along the radial and ulnar aspects of the flexor tendon sheath, superficial to the A1 pulley. They are particularly vulnerable during surgical approaches to the A1 pulley, especially the radial digital nerve of the index finger and the ulnar digital nerve of the little finger, as they are often more volar." Therefore, for the index finger, the radial digital nerve is highlighted as particularly vulnerable.Option A is incorrectbecause while the ulnar digital nerve of the index finger is present, the radial digital nerve is specifically mentioned as more vulnerable due to its often more volar position.Option C is incorrectbecause the common digital nerves are more proximal in the palm and divide into proper digital nerves before reaching the A1 pulley level.Option D is incorrectbecause the median nerve proper is a major nerve in the forearm and wrist, not directly at the A1 pulley level in the digit.Option E is incorrectbecause the question specifically asks about the index finger, not the middle finger.
Question 228
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 35-year-old mother presents with a 9-month history of painful locking of her right thumb, which she describes as interfering significantly with her ability to care for her infant. She has a palpable nodule at the base of her thumb and a fixed flexion deformity of the MCP joint, requiring passive manipulation to extend. She has undergone two corticosteroid injections, with only temporary relief lasting less than 2 weeks each time. Based on the provided indications, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgical release of the A1 pulley, given her persistent symptoms and fixed deformity.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case outlines several operative indications, including: "Failure of Non-Operative Management: Persistent, symptomatic triggering, locking, or pain despite adequate trials of corticosteroid injections (typically 1-2 injections)..." and "Fixed Flexion Deformity: Established contracture of the MCP joint secondary to chronic triggering, making passive extension difficult or incomplete." This patient has failed two injections, has persistent debilitating symptoms, and a fixed flexion deformity, all strong indications for surgical release.Option A is incorrectbecause the case states that typically 1-2 injections are tried, and repeated injections (more than 2-3) are generally not recommended due to potential tendon weakening or skin atrophy. She has already failed two.Option B is incorrectbecause while therapy and splinting are part of conservative management, she has already failed injections and has a fixed deformity, indicating a need for more definitive treatment.Option D is incorrectbecause while childhood trigger thumb can sometimes self-resolve, this patient is an adult (35 years old) and has a fixed deformity, which warrants surgical intervention, not observation.Option E is incorrectbecause the diagnosis of trigger finger/thumb is primarily clinical, and imaging is generally not required for typical presentations. Her symptoms and physical exam findings are classic.
Question 229
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 68-year-old male undergoes an open A1 pulley release for a trigger middle finger. Two weeks post-operatively, he reports that while the pain has improved, he still experiences a 'catching' sensation when actively flexing and extending his finger, similar to his pre-operative symptoms, though perhaps less severe. On examination, a subtle click is still palpable at the base of the finger. Based on the case, what is the most likely cause of his persistent symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incomplete release of the A1 pulley fibers.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe case identifies "Incomplete Release/Recurrence" as a common complication (1-5% incidence) and states: "The most common reason for persistent symptoms post-surgery [is] Insufficient division of the A1 pulley fibers..." The patient's description of persistent 'catching' and a palpable click strongly suggests an incomplete release.Option A is incorrectbecause CRPS presents with a constellation of symptoms including disproportionate pain, swelling, skin changes, and temperature dysregulation, which are not described here. Persistent triggering is not a primary symptom of CRPS.Option B is incorrectbecause digital nerve injury typically causes sensory deficits, numbness, or painful neuroma/dysesthesia, not a mechanical 'catching' or 'triggering' sensation.Option C is incorrectbecause inadvertent division of the A2 pulley leads to bowstringing, which is a visible displacement of the tendon away from the bone, and is extremely rare with isolated A1 release. It does not typically manifest as persistent 'catching' in the same way as an incomplete A1 release.Option E is incorrectbecause infection would present with signs such as redness, warmth, purulent discharge, and increased pain, none of which are mentioned in the vignette.
Question 230
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open A1 pulley release, after identifying and retracting the neurovascular bundles, the surgeon exposes the glistening white flexor tendon sheath. To ensure safe and complete release of the A1 pulley, which critical step should be performed immediately before incising the pulley?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insert the tip of a curved mosquito hemostat or probe under the A1 pulley and over the flexor tendons.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case describes the A1 pulley release technique: "Crucial Step: Insert the tip of a curved mosquito hemostat or a probeunderthe A1 pulley andoverthe flexor tendons. This elevates the pulley off the tendons and protects the underlying tendons from inadvertent laceration." This is a fundamental safety step to prevent iatrogenic tendon injury.Option A is incorrectbecause a tourniquet (usually an upper arm tourniquet) would have been applied and inflated much earlier in the procedure to create a bloodless field for the entire dissection, not immediately before incising the pulley.Option B is incorrectbecause the triggering site would have been confirmed during the pre-operative physical examination and potentially intra-operatively before the incision, but not immediately before incising the pulley after full exposure.Option D is incorrectbecause injecting local anesthetic into the tendon itself is not a standard practice and could cause tendon damage or irritation. Local anesthetic is typically infiltrated into the surrounding tissues for regional anesthesia.Option E is incorrectbecause the A2 pulley is a critical pulley that must be preserved to prevent bowstringing. Incising it would be a significant complication, not a necessary step.
Question 231
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A surgeon is performing an A1 pulley release. During the procedure, there is concern about inadvertently damaging adjacent pulleys. The case highlights the importance of preserving specific pulleys to prevent bowstringing and maintain the mechanical advantage of the flexor tendons. Which of the following pulleys is considered critical to preserve during an A1 pulley release to avoid bowstringing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A2 Pulley
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe case explicitly states under Annular Pulleys: "A2 Pulley: Originates from the proximal half of the proximal phalanx. It is a critical pulley for flexor tendon mechanics and must be preserved during A1 pulley release to avoid bowstringing." This directly answers the question.Option A is incorrectbecause the A3 pulley overlies the PIP joint volar plate and is less critical for preventing bowstringing compared to A2. While important, its division alone after A1 release is less likely to cause significant bowstringing.Option B is incorrectbecause C1 is a cruciate pulley, which are thinner and more flexible, and their primary role is not to prevent bowstringing in the same critical manner as the A2 pulley.Option C is incorrectbecause the A5 pulley overlies the DIP joint volar plate and is not the primary pulley for preventing bowstringing at the MCP/proximal phalanx level.Option E is incorrectbecause C3 is a cruciate pulley, similar to C1, and not the critical pulley for preventing bowstringing in the context of A1 release.
Question 232
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open trigger finger release of the middle finger, the surgeon incises the A1 pulley. Which adjacent annular pulley is most critical to preserve to prevent bowstringing of the flexor tendons?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A2 pulley
Explanation
The A2 and A4 pulleys are the major biomechanical pulleys critical for preventing flexor tendon bowstringing. The A2 pulley is located just distal to the A1 pulley and must be carefully protected during a standard A1 pulley release.
Question 233
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 2-year-old child presents with a fixed flexion deformity of the right thumb interphalangeal joint. The parents state the thumb has been "stuck" for a month. A palpable Nott's node is present at the volar metacarpophalangeal joint. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and parental reassurance
Explanation
Pediatric trigger thumb typically presents as a fixed flexion deformity rather than dynamic triggering. Observation is initially recommended, as up to 30% of cases resolve spontaneously if noted before 1 year of age, and surgery is usually reserved for non-resolving cases after age 3.
Question 234
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a locked trigger ring finger. How does the patient's diabetic status affect the expected outcome of a local corticosteroid injection compared to a non-diabetic patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower success rate and higher likelihood of requiring surgery
Explanation
Diabetic patients have a significantly lower success rate (often <50%) with corticosteroid injections for trigger finger compared to non-diabetics (who have up to 80-90% success). Diabetics frequently require multiple injections or proceed to surgical release.
Question 235
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open surgical release of the A1 pulley for a trigger thumb, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury due to its oblique anatomical course crossing the flexor pollicis longus sheath?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial digital nerve of the thumb
Explanation
The radial digital nerve of the thumb has an oblique course that brings it very close to the proximal edge of the A1 pulley. It is highly susceptible to injury during trigger thumb release if careful blunt dissection is not employed.
Question 236
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During an open surgical release of the A1 pulley for a trigger thumb, which neurovascular structure is at the greatest risk of iatrogenic injury due to its anatomical course?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial digital nerve of the thumb
Explanation
The radial digital nerve of the thumb obliquely crosses the flexor sheath near the metacarpophalangeal flexion crease. It is highly susceptible to injury if the incision is too deep or radial during an A1 pulley release.
Question 237
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following describes the primary histological finding in the A1 pulley of a patient with chronic trigger finger?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibrocartilaginous metaplasia with chondrocyte proliferation
Explanation
Trigger finger is primarily a degenerative rather than inflammatory condition. Histology demonstrates fibrocartilaginous metaplasia and hypertrophy of the A1 pulley with local chondrocyte proliferation.
Question 238
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a grade III trigger ring finger. Regarding the use of corticosteroid injections for this condition, the patient should be counseled that:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. They have a significantly lower rate of symptom resolution compared to non-diabetics.
Explanation
Diabetic patients generally have a much lower success rate (often around 50% or less) with corticosteroid injections for trigger fingers compared to non-diabetics. Multiple injections are less likely to succeed, and surgical release is more frequently required.
Question 239
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
During surgical release of a pediatric trigger thumb, which neurological structure is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury due to its anatomical course?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial digital nerve of the thumb
Explanation
The radial digital nerve of the thumb is at high risk during trigger thumb release because it crosses obliquely from ulnar to radial over the flexor sheath near the metacarpophalangeal flexion crease. Meticulous blunt dissection and lateral retraction are required to protect it.
Question 240
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 58-year-old patient with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with a locking ring finger. What is the most accurate information regarding the expected outcome of a single corticosteroid injection for her trigger finger compared to a non-diabetic patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. They have a significantly lower long-term success rate, approximately 50%.
Explanation
Corticosteroid injections for trigger digits in diabetic patients have a much lower long-term resolution rate (approximately 50%) compared to the 80-90% success rate seen in non-diabetic patients. Diabetics frequently require subsequent surgical release of the A1 pulley.
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