This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1881
Topic: 6. Spine
During the evaluation of a 65-year-old male with cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. This physical examination finding indicates compression of which tract?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Corticospinal tract
Explanation
The described test is Hoffmann sign, which indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Cervical myelopathy primarily affects the descending corticospinal tracts, resulting in upper motor neuron signs such as hyperreflexia and a positive Hoffmann sign.
Question 1882
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old construction worker presents with a calcaneal fracture after a fall from scaffolding. Plain radiographs show an intra-articular fracture with significant decrease in Bรถhler's angle. Which of the following associated injuries should be specifically ruled out during the initial workup?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lumbar spine compression fracture.
Explanation
Calcaneal fractures, especially those resulting from falls from height, are high-energy injuries. A well-known and critical association, occurring in approximately 10-15% of cases, is a lumbar spine compression fracture. The axial load transmitted through the body during a fall that causes a calcaneal fracture often also impacts the spine. Therefore, a thorough evaluation including a lateral lumbar spine radiograph is essential to rule out this potentially debilitating associated injury.
Question 1883
Topic: 6. Spine
During a neurological examination of a 68-year-old male with suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner strikes the brachioradialis tendon. The patient responds with diminished elbow flexion, but exhibits spontaneous finger flexion and wrist extension. This finding is known as the inverted brachioradialis reflex. What level of spinal cord pathology does this most accurately suggest?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5-C6
Explanation
The inverted brachioradialis reflex localizes to a C5-C6 spinal cord lesion. It indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at C5 (absent elbow flexion) and an upper motor neuron lesion at C6 (hyperactive finger flexion/wrist extension).
Question 1884
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with persistent lower back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs reveal an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. If this patient were to develop radicular symptoms due to the pseudarthrosis tissue in the pars defect, which nerve root is most likely to be compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5
Explanation
In an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, hypertrophic fibrocartilaginous tissue at the pars interarticularis defect classically compresses the exiting L5 nerve root within the neural foramen.
Question 1885
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old male with a long-standing history of Ankylosing Spondylitis presents to the emergency department with severe neck pain after a minor ground-level fall. Initial plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear normal without obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine
Explanation
Patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable, occult spinal fractures even after minor trauma. Due to altered bone density and overlapping anatomy on plain films, a CT scan is mandatory for proper evaluation.
Question 1886
Topic: 6. Spine
A 40-year-old male presents with acute onset of bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention. A post-void residual is measured at 350 mL. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. To maximize the likelihood of recovery of bladder sphincter function, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what time frame?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 24 to 48 hours
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. The current literature demonstrates that surgical decompression performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset provides the greatest potential for recovery of bladder and bowel function.
Question 1887
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle accident with an isolated T12 burst fracture. She is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates definitive disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion
Explanation
The TLICS score assigns 2 points for a burst fracture, 3 points for PLC disruption, and 0 points for being neurologically intact, totaling 5 points. A score of 5 or greater indicates surgical stabilization, typically via posterior spinal fusion.
Question 1888
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male complains of neck pain radiating into his left arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in elbow extension, diminished triceps reflex, and paresthesias affecting the dorsal aspect of the middle finger. These clinical findings are most consistent with a disc herniation at which of the following cervical levels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6-C7
Explanation
The patient exhibits signs of a C7 radiculopathy (triceps weakness, middle finger numbness, absent triceps reflex). In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root corresponds to the lower vertebral body of the disc segment, making C6-C7 the responsible level.
Question 1889
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 35-year-old male sustains a transverse Type II odontoid fracture with 15% anterior displacement following a diving accident. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following treatments provides the highest rate of fusion while preserving maximal C1-C2 rotatory motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
Explanation
Anterior odontoid screw fixation is ideal for young patients with a transverse Type II fracture pattern as it provides direct osteosynthesis while preserving the normal C1-C2 rotation lost in posterior fusion techniques.
Question 1890
Topic: 6. Spine
A 50-year-old male presents with severe severe right anterior thigh pain and quadriceps weakness. The patellar reflex is absent on the right. MRI demonstrates a large, far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L3-L4 far-lateral disc herniation compresses the L3 nerve root, whereas a central/paracentral herniation would compress the traversing L4 root.
Question 1891
Topic: 6. Spine
A 16-year-old male presents with thoracic back pain and cosmetic concerns about his posture. Lateral radiographs reveal anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in three consecutive vertebrae, confirming Scheuermann's kyphosis. Operative intervention via spinal fusion is most commonly indicated when the kyphotic deformity exceeds which of the following angles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 75 degrees
Explanation
Surgical management of Scheuermann's kyphosis is typically reserved for skeletally mature patients with severe pain or deformity, generally accepted as a kyphotic curve exceeding 70 to 75 degrees.
Question 1892
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male complains of severe left-sided radiating leg pain. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates an extraforaminal (far-lateral) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, an extraforaminal (far-lateral) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L4-L5 extraforaminal herniation compresses the exiting L4 nerve root.
Question 1893
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male with a long-standing history of ankylosing spondylitis sustains a low-energy fall. He complains of new-onset lower cervical pain but is neurologically intact. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine show no obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at extremely high risk for highly unstable spinal fractures even from minor trauma. Given the difficulty in interpreting plain radiographs in these patients, a CT scan of the entire cervical spine is mandatory to rule out occult fractures.
Question 1894
Topic: 6. Spine
A 22-year-old restrained passenger in a motor vehicle collision sustains a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be aggressively ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
Explanation
Flexion-distraction injuries (Chance fractures) of the thoracolumbar spine are highly associated with concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus (e.g., bowel) tears. A high index of suspicion and appropriate general surgery evaluation are required.
Question 1895
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old female with degenerative lumbar spinal stenosis complains of bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping with ambulation. Which of the following historical findings best differentiates her neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Walking uphill is tolerated better than walking downhill
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication is typically relieved by lumbar flexion and exacerbated by extension. Therefore, patients tolerate walking uphill (which induces lumbar flexion) much better than walking downhill (which induces lumbar extension).
Question 1896
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 65-year-old female with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive hand clumsiness and hyperreflexia. Radiographs reveal atlantoaxial instability. Which of the following radiographic measurements is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery following cervical fusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of less than 14 mm
Explanation
The posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) directly measures the space available for the spinal cord. A PADI of less than 14 mm is a critical threshold and the most reliable predictor of potential neurologic recovery in rheumatoid atlantoaxial subluxation.
Question 1897
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old female is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing only a lap belt. She sustains a T12 flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture). During her trauma evaluation, she is at highest risk for which of the following concomitant injuries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hollow viscus intra-abdominal injury
Explanation
Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries of the spine) are highly associated with lap belt use in motor vehicle accidents. They carry a very high incidence (up to 40-50%) of concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus lacerations.
Question 1898
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication and low back pain. MRI demonstrates severe L4-L5 central canal stenosis. Weight-bearing radiographs show a Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 that increases on flexion views. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion
Explanation
For patients with symptomatic spinal stenosis and associated dynamic instability or degenerative spondylolisthesis, decompression alone has a high failure rate. Laminectomy combined with an instrumented fusion provides superior long-term clinical outcomes.
Question 1899
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 60-year-old male presents with bilateral hand clumsiness, frequent dropping of objects, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Physical exam reveals a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. MRI reveals continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6, causing severe ventral cord compression. The cervical spine maintains normal lordosis. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion from C3 to C6
Explanation
Posterior laminectomy and fusion is the preferred approach for multi-level OPLL (>3 levels) in a lordotic spine. Anterior approaches for extensive OPLL carry a high risk of dural tears, construct failure, and pseudoarthrosis.
Question 1900
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 45-year-old construction worker falls from scaffolding, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. CT imaging shows 15 degrees of local kyphosis, 30% canal compromise, and an intact posterior tension band. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the recommended management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
Explanation
This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: Burst = 1; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Intact = 0). A score of 3 or less is an indication for nonoperative management, typically with a TLSO.
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