Menu

Question 1881

Topic: 6. Spine

During the evaluation of a 65-year-old male with cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. This physical examination finding indicates compression of which tract?

. Spinothalamic tract
. Corticospinal tract
. Dorsal columns
. Spinocerebellar tract
. Vestibulospinal tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corticospinal tract


Explanation

The described test is Hoffmann sign, which indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Cervical myelopathy primarily affects the descending corticospinal tracts, resulting in upper motor neuron signs such as hyperreflexia and a positive Hoffmann sign.

Question 1882

Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old construction worker presents with a calcaneal fracture after a fall from scaffolding. Plain radiographs show an intra-articular fracture with significant decrease in Bรถhler's angle. Which of the following associated injuries should be specifically ruled out during the initial workup?
. Ipsilateral hip dislocation.
. Contralateral ankle sprain.
. Lumbar spine compression fracture.
. Cervical spine instability.
. Upper extremity fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lumbar spine compression fracture.


Explanation

Calcaneal fractures, especially those resulting from falls from height, are high-energy injuries. A well-known and critical association, occurring in approximately 10-15% of cases, is a lumbar spine compression fracture. The axial load transmitted through the body during a fall that causes a calcaneal fracture often also impacts the spine. Therefore, a thorough evaluation including a lateral lumbar spine radiograph is essential to rule out this potentially debilitating associated injury.

Question 1883

Topic: 6. Spine

During a neurological examination of a 68-year-old male with suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner strikes the brachioradialis tendon. The patient responds with diminished elbow flexion, but exhibits spontaneous finger flexion and wrist extension. This finding is known as the inverted brachioradialis reflex. What level of spinal cord pathology does this most accurately suggest?

. C3-C4
. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

The inverted brachioradialis reflex localizes to a C5-C6 spinal cord lesion. It indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at C5 (absent elbow flexion) and an upper motor neuron lesion at C6 (hyperactive finger flexion/wrist extension).

Question 1884

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old gymnast presents with persistent lower back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs reveal an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. If this patient were to develop radicular symptoms due to the pseudarthrosis tissue in the pars defect, which nerve root is most likely to be compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

In an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, hypertrophic fibrocartilaginous tissue at the pars interarticularis defect classically compresses the exiting L5 nerve root within the neural foramen.

Question 1885

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with a long-standing history of Ankylosing Spondylitis presents to the emergency department with severe neck pain after a minor ground-level fall. Initial plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear normal without obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Reassure the patient and prescribe oral NSAIDs
. Obtain flexion and extension cervical radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine
. Prescribe a soft cervical collar for 2 weeks
. Perform a diagnostic facet block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable, occult spinal fractures even after minor trauma. Due to altered bone density and overlapping anatomy on plain films, a CT scan is mandatory for proper evaluation.

Question 1886

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old male presents with acute onset of bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention. A post-void residual is measured at 350 mL. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. To maximize the likelihood of recovery of bladder sphincter function, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what time frame?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 24 to 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week
. After a 24-hour trial of high-dose corticosteroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24 to 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. The current literature demonstrates that surgical decompression performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset provides the greatest potential for recovery of bladder and bowel function.

Question 1887

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle accident with an isolated T12 burst fracture. She is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates definitive disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the recommended treatment?

. TLSO bracing for 12 weeks
. Posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior corpectomy without fusion
. Percutaneous vertebroplasty
. Laminectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion


Explanation

The TLICS score assigns 2 points for a burst fracture, 3 points for PLC disruption, and 0 points for being neurologically intact, totaling 5 points. A score of 5 or greater indicates surgical stabilization, typically via posterior spinal fusion.

Question 1888

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male complains of neck pain radiating into his left arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in elbow extension, diminished triceps reflex, and paresthesias affecting the dorsal aspect of the middle finger. These clinical findings are most consistent with a disc herniation at which of the following cervical levels?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. T1-T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6-C7


Explanation

The patient exhibits signs of a C7 radiculopathy (triceps weakness, middle finger numbness, absent triceps reflex). In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root corresponds to the lower vertebral body of the disc segment, making C6-C7 the responsible level.

Question 1889

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 35-year-old male sustains a transverse Type II odontoid fracture with 15% anterior displacement following a diving accident. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following treatments provides the highest rate of fusion while preserving maximal C1-C2 rotatory motion?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Hard cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Cervical traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior odontoid screw fixation


Explanation

Anterior odontoid screw fixation is ideal for young patients with a transverse Type II fracture pattern as it provides direct osteosynthesis while preserving the normal C1-C2 rotation lost in posterior fusion techniques.

Question 1890

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old male presents with severe severe right anterior thigh pain and quadriceps weakness. The patellar reflex is absent on the right. MRI demonstrates a large, far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L3-L4 far-lateral disc herniation compresses the L3 nerve root, whereas a central/paracentral herniation would compress the traversing L4 root.

Question 1891

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old male presents with thoracic back pain and cosmetic concerns about his posture. Lateral radiographs reveal anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in three consecutive vertebrae, confirming Scheuermann's kyphosis. Operative intervention via spinal fusion is most commonly indicated when the kyphotic deformity exceeds which of the following angles?

. 40 degrees
. 50 degrees
. 60 degrees
. 75 degrees
. 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 75 degrees


Explanation

Surgical management of Scheuermann's kyphosis is typically reserved for skeletally mature patients with severe pain or deformity, generally accepted as a kyphotic curve exceeding 70 to 75 degrees.

Question 1892

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male complains of severe left-sided radiating leg pain. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates an extraforaminal (far-lateral) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, an extraforaminal (far-lateral) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L4-L5 extraforaminal herniation compresses the exiting L4 nerve root.

Question 1893

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with a long-standing history of ankylosing spondylitis sustains a low-energy fall. He complains of new-onset lower cervical pain but is neurologically intact. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine show no obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar
. Perform dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine
. Prescribe a rigid cervical orthosis for 6 weeks
. Obtain an MRI of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at extremely high risk for highly unstable spinal fractures even from minor trauma. Given the difficulty in interpreting plain radiographs in these patients, a CT scan of the entire cervical spine is mandatory to rule out occult fractures.

Question 1894

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old restrained passenger in a motor vehicle collision sustains a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be aggressively ruled out?

. Aortic transection
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Pulmonary contusion
. Diaphragmatic rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Flexion-distraction injuries (Chance fractures) of the thoracolumbar spine are highly associated with concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus (e.g., bowel) tears. A high index of suspicion and appropriate general surgery evaluation are required.

Question 1895

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old female with degenerative lumbar spinal stenosis complains of bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping with ambulation. Which of the following historical findings best differentiates her neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain is relieved immediately upon standing still
. Pain is exacerbated when pushing a grocery cart
. Walking uphill is tolerated better than walking downhill
. Absent pedal pulses on physical examination
. Pain begins in the calves and radiates proximally to the buttocks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Walking uphill is tolerated better than walking downhill


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is typically relieved by lumbar flexion and exacerbated by extension. Therefore, patients tolerate walking uphill (which induces lumbar flexion) much better than walking downhill (which induces lumbar extension).

Question 1896

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 65-year-old female with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive hand clumsiness and hyperreflexia. Radiographs reveal atlantoaxial instability. Which of the following radiographic measurements is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery following cervical fusion?

. Anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 5 mm
. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of less than 14 mm
. Powers ratio greater than 1
. Basion-dental interval greater than 12 mm
. Cervical lordosis angle of 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of less than 14 mm


Explanation

The posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) directly measures the space available for the spinal cord. A PADI of less than 14 mm is a critical threshold and the most reliable predictor of potential neurologic recovery in rheumatoid atlantoaxial subluxation.

Question 1897

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old female is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing only a lap belt. She sustains a T12 flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture). During her trauma evaluation, she is at highest risk for which of the following concomitant injuries?

. Aortic transection
. Pulmonary contusion
. Hollow viscus intra-abdominal injury
. Pelvic ring disruption
. Diaphragmatic rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus intra-abdominal injury


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries of the spine) are highly associated with lap belt use in motor vehicle accidents. They carry a very high incidence (up to 40-50%) of concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus lacerations.

Question 1898

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication and low back pain. MRI demonstrates severe L4-L5 central canal stenosis. Weight-bearing radiographs show a Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 that increases on flexion views. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. L4-L5 laminectomy alone
. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion
. L4-L5 microdiscectomy
. Interspinous process spacer placement
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion


Explanation

For patients with symptomatic spinal stenosis and associated dynamic instability or degenerative spondylolisthesis, decompression alone has a high failure rate. Laminectomy combined with an instrumented fusion provides superior long-term clinical outcomes.

Question 1899

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 60-year-old male presents with bilateral hand clumsiness, frequent dropping of objects, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Physical exam reveals a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. MRI reveals continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6, causing severe ventral cord compression. The cervical spine maintains normal lordosis. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) from C3 to C6
. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion from C3 to C6
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion at C4 and C5
. Cervical disc arthroplasty at C4-C5 and C5-C6
. Posterior cervical foraminotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion from C3 to C6


Explanation

Posterior laminectomy and fusion is the preferred approach for multi-level OPLL (>3 levels) in a lordotic spine. Anterior approaches for extensive OPLL carry a high risk of dural tears, construct failure, and pseudoarthrosis.

Question 1900

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 45-year-old construction worker falls from scaffolding, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. CT imaging shows 15 degrees of local kyphosis, 30% canal compromise, and an intact posterior tension band. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the recommended management?

. Posterior spinal instrumentation and fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
. Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation without fusion
. Laminectomy and short-segment fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization


Explanation

This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: Burst = 1; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Intact = 0). A score of 3 or less is an indication for nonoperative management, typically with a TLSO.