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Question 1761

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old female presents with severe right upper extremity pain radiating to the middle finger, along with weakness in elbow extension. A cervical MRI reveals a herniated disc. Which intervertebral level is most likely affected?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. T1-T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6-C7


Explanation

The C7 nerve root is compressed by a C6-C7 disc herniation. C7 radiculopathy is classically characterized by weakness in the triceps (elbow extension) and wrist flexors, accompanied by numbness radiating to the middle finger.

Question 1762

Topic: 6. Spine
A 3-year-old boy is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Which of the following additional screening tests is mandatory in the initial workup?
. Echocardiogram
. Renal ultrasound
. Pulmonary function tests
. Brain MRI
. Upper extremity electromyography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL anomalies. Renal abnormalities occur in up to 20-30% of these patients, making renal ultrasound and a total spine MRI (to evaluate for neuroaxial anomalies) mandatory.

Question 1763

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the long-term results of the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) for lumbar disc herniation, which of the following statements is true regarding surgical versus nonoperative treatment?

. Intent-to-treat analysis showed a statistically significant advantage for surgery at 8 years
. As-treated analysis demonstrated sustained, significant advantages for surgery at 8 years
. Surgery had an unacceptably higher complication rate than conservative care
. Nonoperative treatment was associated with a higher rate of subsequent cauda equina syndrome
. Crossover rates from nonoperative treatment to surgery were less than 10%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. As-treated analysis demonstrated sustained, significant advantages for surgery at 8 years


Explanation

The SPORT 8-year follow-up for lumbar disc herniation showed high crossover rates, meaning intent-to-treat analysis showed no significant difference between groups. However, the as-treated analysis demonstrated a sustained and significant advantage for surgical decompression.

Question 1764

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old non-ambulatory male with Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents with a 45-degree thoracolumbar scoliosis. His forced vital capacity (FVC) is currently 40% of predicted. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?

. Anterior spinal fusion alone
. Posterior spinal fusion stopping at the lower lumbar spine (L5)
. Posterior spinal fusion extended to the pelvis
. Growth-friendly constructs (e.g., growing rods)
. Observation until FVC drops below 20%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion extended to the pelvis


Explanation

Patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy develop progressive, collapsing neuromuscular scoliosis. Surgical stabilization via posterior spinal fusion extended to the pelvis is indicated to improve sitting balance before pulmonary function deteriorates excessively (FVC < 35-40%).

Question 1765

Topic: 6. Spine

In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, the rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is used to predict the natural history of the curve. An RVAD greater than what threshold indicates a high probability of curve progression?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

Mehta's RVAD greater than 20 degrees is highly predictive of curve progression in infantile idiopathic scoliosis. These patients typically require early intervention such as serial elongation-derotation-flexion (EDF) casting to prevent severe deformity.

Question 1766

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with severe right leg pain, weakness in great toe extension, and diminished sensation over the dorsal aspect of the right foot. He has a normal Achilles reflex. Which of the following disc herniations is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

. L3-L4 paracentral herniation
. L4-L5 paracentral herniation
. L5-S1 paracentral herniation
. L4-L5 far lateral herniation
. L2-L3 far lateral herniation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 paracentral herniation


Explanation

This clinical presentation describes an L5 radiculopathy (extensor hallucis longus weakness, dorsal foot numbness). An L4-L5 paracentral disc herniation compresses the traversing L5 nerve root.

Question 1767

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old female presents with neck pain radiating down her arm to her index and middle fingers. On examination, she has weakness in elbow extension and an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

A C7 radiculopathy presents with pain radiating to the middle fingers, weakness in the triceps and wrist flexors, and a diminished or absent triceps reflex.

Question 1768

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral calf pain that worsens with walking and improves when he leans forward on a shopping cart. To reliably differentiate between neurogenic and vascular claudication, which of the following non-invasive tests is most appropriate initially?

. Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
. MRI of the lumbar spine
. Electromyography (EMG)
. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP)
. Venous duplex ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle-brachial index (ABI)


Explanation

Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the most appropriate initial non-invasive test to evaluate for peripheral arterial disease and rule out vascular claudication before proceeding with spine-specific diagnostics.

Question 1769

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-month-old male is evaluated for infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a 25-degree left thoracic curve. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 28 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation with serial casting every 2 years
. Serial EDF (elongation, derotation, flexion) casting
. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
. Placement of vertical expandable prosthetic titanium ribs (VEPTR)
. TLSO bracing only at night

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serial EDF (elongation, derotation, flexion) casting


Explanation

An RVAD greater than 20 degrees in infantile idiopathic scoliosis indicates a high likelihood of progression (Phase 2), making serial EDF casting the gold standard treatment.

Question 1770

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain, bilateral leg pain, and saddle anesthesia. Which of the following is considered the most sensitive early clinical finding for cauda equina syndrome?

. Fecal incontinence
. Loss of Achilles reflex
. Urinary retention
. Bilateral foot drop
. Absent bulbocavernosus reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention


Explanation

Urinary retention is the most consistent and sensitive early symptom of cauda equina syndrome, often confirmed with a post-void residual >200 cc.

Question 1771

Topic: 6. Spine

During a neurological examination for suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the patient's middle finger, eliciting reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?

. Babinski sign
. Spurling sign
. Hoffmann sign
. Lhermitte sign
. Oppenheim sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hoffmann sign


Explanation

The Hoffmann sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion, often seen in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the middle finger nail, causing thumb IP joint flexion.

Question 1772

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old male with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents with a 75-degree thoracolumbar neuromuscular scoliosis and a 25-degree pelvic obliquity. He is non-ambulatory and has difficulty sitting in his wheelchair. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?

. Selective thoracic fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion stopping at L4
. Posterior spinal fusion extending to the pelvis
. Anterior vertebral body tethering
. Growing rods insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion extending to the pelvis


Explanation

In non-ambulatory patients with severe neuromuscular scoliosis and significant pelvic obliquity, extending the posterior spinal fusion to the pelvis is essential to restore sitting balance.

Question 1773

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old gymnast complains of chronic low back pain worsening with extension. Radiographs confirm a Grade 2 isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. She has failed 6 months of physical therapy and bracing. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Direct pars interarticularis repair
. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion
. L4-S1 posterior spinal fusion
. L5 laminectomy without fusion
. Total disc replacement at L5-S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion


Explanation

Symptomatic Grade 1 or 2 isthmic spondylolisthesis in adolescents failing conservative care is best treated with a single-level in situ posterior or transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (L5-S1). Direct pars repair is reserved for minimal slip (Grade 0/1) usually above L5.

Question 1774

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old female presents with severe left anterior thigh pain, weakness in left hip flexion and knee extension, and a diminished left patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a far lateral disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2


Explanation

A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Thus, an L3-L4 far lateral herniation compresses the L3 nerve root.

Question 1775

Topic: 6. Spine

When planning corrective surgery for adult spinal deformity, achieving appropriate sagittal balance is highly correlated with improved patient-reported outcomes. Which of the following target thresholds for the Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) is considered optimal?

. < 5 cm
. 5 to 10 cm
. 10 to 15 cm
. 15 to 20 cm
. > 20 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. < 5 cm


Explanation

An optimal Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) of less than 5 cm is a widely accepted target in adult spinal deformity correction to optimize postoperative health-related quality of life (HRQOL) scores.

Question 1776

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old male presents with isolated C5-C6 radiculopathy. The surgeon is considering a cervical disc arthroplasty (CDA) versus an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to CDA?

. Age greater than 35 years
. Modic Type 1 endplate changes
. Presence of radicular arm pain
. Severe facet joint arthropathy at C5-C6
. Previous lumbar microdiscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe facet joint arthropathy at C5-C6


Explanation

Cervical disc arthroplasty relies on preserving motion at the operative segment. Severe facet joint arthropathy is a contraindication because continued motion will lead to persistent pain.

Question 1777

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with progressive myelopathy. MRI reveals a large, central, heavily calcified T8-T9 disc herniation causing severe cord compression. Which surgical approach carries the highest risk of iatrogenic spinal cord injury and should generally be avoided?

. Anterior transthoracic corpectomy
. Costotransversectomy
. Standard posterior laminectomy
. Lateral extracavitary approach
. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standard posterior laminectomy


Explanation

Standard posterior laminectomy is contraindicated for central calcified thoracic disc herniations due to the high risk of catastrophic spinal cord injury from direct retraction or manipulation of the cord.

Question 1778

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old male presents with an increased thoracic kyphosis measuring 65 degrees. To meet the radiographic Sorensen criteria for classical Scheuermann's disease, there must be anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in a minimum of how many consecutive vertebrae?

. 1
. 2
. 3
. 4
. 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3


Explanation

The classic Sorensen criteria for Scheuermann's kyphosis require the presence of anterior wedging of 5 degrees or more in at least 3 consecutive thoracic vertebrae.

Question 1779

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 65-year-old female is diagnosed with L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. Which of the following anatomic variations is the most significant predisposing risk factor for developing this specific condition?

. Coronal orientation of the facet joints
. Sagittal orientation of the facet joints
. Congenital pars interarticularis defect
. Unilateral sacralization of L5
. Short pedicle syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sagittal orientation of the facet joints


Explanation

A more sagittal orientation of the facet joints at L4-L5 reduces their mechanical resistance to anterior translation, predisposing the patient to degenerative spondylolisthesis.

Question 1780

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male undergoes a 9-hour posterior spinal fusion for complex adult deformity. Upon waking, he complains of painless, bilateral visual loss. His pupils are sluggish to light, but the anterior eye segments are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Central retinal artery occlusion
. Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)
. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
. Cortical blindness
. Corneal abrasion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)


Explanation

Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION) is the most common cause of postoperative visual loss following long-duration prone spine surgery, often linked to decreased perfusion, blood loss, and prolonged prone positioning.