This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1761
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old female presents with severe right upper extremity pain radiating to the middle finger, along with weakness in elbow extension. A cervical MRI reveals a herniated disc. Which intervertebral level is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6-C7
Explanation
The C7 nerve root is compressed by a C6-C7 disc herniation. C7 radiculopathy is classically characterized by weakness in the triceps (elbow extension) and wrist flexors, accompanied by numbness radiating to the middle finger.
Question 1762
Topic: 6. Spine
A 3-year-old boy is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Which of the following additional screening tests is mandatory in the initial workup?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Renal ultrasound
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL anomalies. Renal abnormalities occur in up to 20-30% of these patients, making renal ultrasound and a total spine MRI (to evaluate for neuroaxial anomalies) mandatory.
Question 1763
Topic: 6. Spine
According to the long-term results of the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) for lumbar disc herniation, which of the following statements is true regarding surgical versus nonoperative treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. As-treated analysis demonstrated sustained, significant advantages for surgery at 8 years
Explanation
The SPORT 8-year follow-up for lumbar disc herniation showed high crossover rates, meaning intent-to-treat analysis showed no significant difference between groups. However, the as-treated analysis demonstrated a sustained and significant advantage for surgical decompression.
Question 1764
Topic: 6. Spine
A 16-year-old non-ambulatory male with Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents with a 45-degree thoracolumbar scoliosis. His forced vital capacity (FVC) is currently 40% of predicted. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion extended to the pelvis
Explanation
Patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy develop progressive, collapsing neuromuscular scoliosis. Surgical stabilization via posterior spinal fusion extended to the pelvis is indicated to improve sitting balance before pulmonary function deteriorates excessively (FVC < 35-40%).
Question 1765
Topic: 6. Spine
In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, the rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is used to predict the natural history of the curve. An RVAD greater than what threshold indicates a high probability of curve progression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20 degrees
Explanation
Mehta's RVAD greater than 20 degrees is highly predictive of curve progression in infantile idiopathic scoliosis. These patients typically require early intervention such as serial elongation-derotation-flexion (EDF) casting to prevent severe deformity.
Question 1766
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents with severe right leg pain, weakness in great toe extension, and diminished sensation over the dorsal aspect of the right foot. He has a normal Achilles reflex. Which of the following disc herniations is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-L5 paracentral herniation
Explanation
This clinical presentation describes an L5 radiculopathy (extensor hallucis longus weakness, dorsal foot numbness). An L4-L5 paracentral disc herniation compresses the traversing L5 nerve root.
Question 1767
Topic: 6. Spine
A 50-year-old female presents with neck pain radiating down her arm to her index and middle fingers. On examination, she has weakness in elbow extension and an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C7
Explanation
A C7 radiculopathy presents with pain radiating to the middle fingers, weakness in the triceps and wrist flexors, and a diminished or absent triceps reflex.
Question 1768
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral calf pain that worsens with walking and improves when he leans forward on a shopping cart. To reliably differentiate between neurogenic and vascular claudication, which of the following non-invasive tests is most appropriate initially?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
Explanation
Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the most appropriate initial non-invasive test to evaluate for peripheral arterial disease and rule out vascular claudication before proceeding with spine-specific diagnostics.
Question 1769
Topic: 6. Spine
An 8-month-old male is evaluated for infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a 25-degree left thoracic curve. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 28 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Serial EDF (elongation, derotation, flexion) casting
Explanation
An RVAD greater than 20 degrees in infantile idiopathic scoliosis indicates a high likelihood of progression (Phase 2), making serial EDF casting the gold standard treatment.
Question 1770
Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain, bilateral leg pain, and saddle anesthesia. Which of the following is considered the most sensitive early clinical finding for cauda equina syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Urinary retention
Explanation
Urinary retention is the most consistent and sensitive early symptom of cauda equina syndrome, often confirmed with a post-void residual >200 cc.
Question 1771
Topic: 6. Spine
During a neurological examination for suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the patient's middle finger, eliciting reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hoffmann sign
Explanation
The Hoffmann sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion, often seen in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the middle finger nail, causing thumb IP joint flexion.
Question 1772
Topic: 6. Spine
A 12-year-old male with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents with a 75-degree thoracolumbar neuromuscular scoliosis and a 25-degree pelvic obliquity. He is non-ambulatory and has difficulty sitting in his wheelchair. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion extending to the pelvis
Explanation
In non-ambulatory patients with severe neuromuscular scoliosis and significant pelvic obliquity, extending the posterior spinal fusion to the pelvis is essential to restore sitting balance.
Question 1773
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old gymnast complains of chronic low back pain worsening with extension. Radiographs confirm a Grade 2 isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. She has failed 6 months of physical therapy and bracing. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion
Explanation
Symptomatic Grade 1 or 2 isthmic spondylolisthesis in adolescents failing conservative care is best treated with a single-level in situ posterior or transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (L5-S1). Direct pars repair is reserved for minimal slip (Grade 0/1) usually above L5.
Question 1774
Topic: 6. Spine
A 50-year-old female presents with severe left anterior thigh pain, weakness in left hip flexion and knee extension, and a diminished left patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a far lateral disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L2
Explanation
A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Thus, an L3-L4 far lateral herniation compresses the L3 nerve root.
Question 1775
Topic: 6. Spine
When planning corrective surgery for adult spinal deformity, achieving appropriate sagittal balance is highly correlated with improved patient-reported outcomes. Which of the following target thresholds for the Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) is considered optimal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. < 5 cm
Explanation
An optimal Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) of less than 5 cm is a widely accepted target in adult spinal deformity correction to optimize postoperative health-related quality of life (HRQOL) scores.
Question 1776
Topic: 6. Spine
A 40-year-old male presents with isolated C5-C6 radiculopathy. The surgeon is considering a cervical disc arthroplasty (CDA) versus an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to CDA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe facet joint arthropathy at C5-C6
Explanation
Cervical disc arthroplasty relies on preserving motion at the operative segment. Severe facet joint arthropathy is a contraindication because continued motion will lead to persistent pain.
Question 1777
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents with progressive myelopathy. MRI reveals a large, central, heavily calcified T8-T9 disc herniation causing severe cord compression. Which surgical approach carries the highest risk of iatrogenic spinal cord injury and should generally be avoided?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Standard posterior laminectomy
Explanation
Standard posterior laminectomy is contraindicated for central calcified thoracic disc herniations due to the high risk of catastrophic spinal cord injury from direct retraction or manipulation of the cord.
Question 1778
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 15-year-old male presents with an increased thoracic kyphosis measuring 65 degrees. To meet the radiographic Sorensen criteria for classical Scheuermann's disease, there must be anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in a minimum of how many consecutive vertebrae?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 3
Explanation
The classic Sorensen criteria for Scheuermann's kyphosis require the presence of anterior wedging of 5 degrees or more in at least 3 consecutive thoracic vertebrae.
Question 1779
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old female is diagnosed with L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. Which of the following anatomic variations is the most significant predisposing risk factor for developing this specific condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal orientation of the facet joints
Explanation
A more sagittal orientation of the facet joints at L4-L5 reduces their mechanical resistance to anterior translation, predisposing the patient to degenerative spondylolisthesis.
Question 1780
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old male undergoes a 9-hour posterior spinal fusion for complex adult deformity. Upon waking, he complains of painless, bilateral visual loss. His pupils are sluggish to light, but the anterior eye segments are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)
Explanation
Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION) is the most common cause of postoperative visual loss following long-duration prone spine surgery, often linked to decreased perfusion, blood loss, and prolonged prone positioning.
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