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Question 1661

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male undergoes a successful primary L4-L5 microdiscectomy for a herniated disc. He asks about the risk of recurrence. What is the generally accepted rate of recurrent disc herniation at the same level following a primary lumbar microdiscectomy?

. < 1%
. 5 - 10%
. 20 - 25%
. 30 - 40%
. > 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 - 10%


Explanation

The recurrence rate of a lumbar disc herniation after a primary microdiscectomy is generally reported to be between 5% and 10%. Patients should be counseled on this risk preoperatively.

Question 1662

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

During a wide lumbar laminectomy and medial facetectomy for severe central and lateral recess stenosis at L4-L5, excessive resection of the pars interarticularis can lead to iatrogenic spondylolisthesis. Biomechanical instability is most likely to occur if the bilateral pars resection exceeds what percentage?

. 10%
. 25%
. 50%
. 75%
. 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 50%


Explanation

Resection of more than 50% of the bilateral pars interarticularis (or facet joint complexes) significantly compromises the biomechanical stability of the lumbar segment, increasing the risk of iatrogenic postoperative spondylolisthesis.

Question 1663

Topic: 6. Spine



A 65-year-old male with neurogenic claudication is found to have an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. Which of the following findings on dynamic flexion-extension radiographs is the most widely accepted threshold to define dynamic instability, thereby strongly supporting the addition of fusion to a surgical decompression?

. Sagittal translation > 1 mm or > 2 degrees of angulation
. Sagittal translation > 3 mm or > 10 degrees of angulation
. Sagittal translation > 5 mm or > 15 degrees of angulation
. Coronal plane translation > 2 mm
. Loss of lordosis > 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sagittal translation > 3 mm or > 10 degrees of angulation


Explanation

Dynamic instability in the lumbar spine is classically defined as sagittal translation of > 3 mm or an angular change of > 10 degrees on dynamic flexion-extension radiographs. This finding strongly indicates the need for concomitant fusion.

Question 1664

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Dysplastic (Wiltse Type I) spondylolisthesis is characterized by congenital abnormalities of the upper sacrum or the neural arch of L5. Which of the following associated findings is most highly correlated with this specific subtype?

. Sagittal facet orientation
. Elongated, thin pars interarticularis
. Spina bifida occulta and a trapezoidal L5 vertebral body
. Pathologic fracture of the pedicle
. Achondroplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spina bifida occulta and a trapezoidal L5 vertebral body


Explanation

Dysplastic spondylolisthesis is highly associated with spina bifida occulta (deficient posterior elements) and a trapezoidal shape of the L5 vertebral body. It occurs secondary to congenital deficiency of the facet joints and posterior arch.

Question 1665

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

According to the Wiltse classification, Type IV (Traumatic) spondylolisthesis is characterized by an acute fracture involving which specific anatomical structure?

. The pars interarticularis
. The vertebral body endplate
. Any part of the posterior arch other than the pars interarticularis
. The anterior longitudinal ligament
. The intervertebral disc annulus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Any part of the posterior arch other than the pars interarticularis


Explanation

Wiltse Type IV (Traumatic) spondylolisthesis occurs secondary to an acute fracture in a portion of the posterior arch OTHER than the pars interarticularis (e.g., pedicle, lamina, or facet). A fracture strictly through the pars is classified as Type II (Isthmic).

Question 1666

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with left anterior thigh pain and weakness in left knee extension. His left patellar reflex is symmetrically diminished compared to the right. MRI reveals a far-lateral disc herniation. At which lumbar level is this far-lateral herniation most likely located?

. L2-L3
. L3-L4
. L4-L5
. L5-S1
. S1-S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5


Explanation

The patient has an L4 radiculopathy (weak knee extension, diminished patellar reflex, anterior thigh pain). A far-lateral disc herniation at L4-L5 will compress the exiting L4 nerve root.

Question 1667

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 20-year-old collegiate gymnast complains of isolated, persistent mechanical low back pain. Radiographs and CT show a bilateral L5 pars defect without spondylolisthesis. After 9 months of conservative care, surgery is considered. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm that the pars defects are the primary pain generators before performing a direct pars repair?

. Discography at L5-S1
. Epidural steroid injection at L5-S1
. Bilateral pars interarticularis local anesthetic injections
. Bone scan (SPECT)
. Electromyography (EMG) of the lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bilateral pars interarticularis local anesthetic injections


Explanation

In a patient with a pars defect and no slip, isolated bilateral pars interarticularis injections with local anesthetic can confirm the defect as the primary pain generator. Significant temporary pain relief validates the indication for a direct pars repair rather than a fusion.

Question 1668

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old soccer player presents with a 4-week history of focal lower back pain exacerbated by extension. Plain radiographs (AP, lateral, and obliques) of the lumbar spine are completely normal. Which of the following is the most sensitive imaging modality to detect an early, acute pars interarticularis stress reaction in this patient?

. CT scan of the lumbar spine without contrast
. Dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Ultrasound of the paraspinal musculature
. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) or MRI with STIR sequencing
. Myelography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) or MRI with STIR sequencing


Explanation

In the setting of normal plain radiographs, MRI (especially STIR sequences showing marrow edema) or a bone scan with SPECT is highly sensitive for detecting early, acute pars stress reactions before a true fracture line is visible on CT.

Question 1669

Topic: 6. Spine

When evaluating a patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome, checking the bulbocavernosus reflex is part of the neurologic exam. Which of the following spinal segments mediates this reflex?

. L1-L2
. L3-L4
. L5-S1
. S2-S4
. Coccygeal plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S2-S4


Explanation

The bulbocavernosus reflex evaluates the integrity of the S2-S4 spinal segments. Absence of this reflex in a patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome suggests a lower motor neuron lesion affecting these sacral roots.

Question 1670

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents with progressive bilateral neurogenic claudication, worse on standing and walking, relieved by sitting or leaning forward. MRI shows severe lumbar spinal stenosis at L4/5. Which surgical approach is generally considered the gold standard for this condition if conservative measures fail?

. Microdiscectomy
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (TLIF)
. Laminectomy with decompression
. Lumbar artificial disc replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laminectomy with decompression


Explanation

Correct Answer: DFor symptomatic lumbar spinal stenosis that causes neurogenic claudication and has failed conservative management, a decompressive laminectomy (with or without associated facetectomy or foraminotomy) is considered the gold standard surgical procedure. Its primary aim is to relieve neural compression directly. Fusion procedures (ALIF, TLIF) are typically reserved for cases with associated instability, significant deformity, or iatrogenic instability created by extensive decompression. Microdiscectomy is primarily for disc herniation, and artificial disc replacement is for discogenic back pain without stenosis or instability.

Question 1671

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a broad-based gait. MRI reveals multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy from C3 to C6 with preserved cervical lordosis. There is no evidence of instability on flexion-extension radiographs. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C3-C6
. Cervical laminectomy alone
. Cervical laminoplasty
. Anterior cervical corpectomy
. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical laminoplasty


Explanation

Cervical laminoplasty is ideal for multilevel (3 or more) cervical myelopathy in the presence of preserved cervical lordosis and the absence of instability. It avoids the morbidity of multilevel anterior fusions while effectively decompressing the spinal cord.

Question 1672

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male presents with progressive hand clumsiness and broad-based gait. MRI shows severe cervical spinal stenosis at C4-C6. Upright lateral radiographs demonstrate a fixed rigid cervical kyphosis of 20 degrees. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. Posterior cervical laminectomy alone
. Posterior cervical laminoplasty
. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion
. Anterior cervical decompression and fusion
. Cervical disc arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical decompression and fusion


Explanation

In the setting of cervical myelopathy with a fixed kyphotic deformity, posterior-only decompression (laminectomy or laminoplasty) is contraindicated as the spinal cord will not drift backward, and kyphosis may worsen. An anterior approach allows for direct decompression of anterior pathology and correction of kyphosis.

Question 1673

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication. Flexion-extension radiographs reveal an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis that increases from 3 mm of translation in extension to 8 mm in flexion. Based on standard guidelines for dynamic instability, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. L4-L5 laminectomy alone
. L4-L5 microdiscectomy
. L4-L5 decompression and instrumented fusion
. Interspinous process spacer placement
. Epidural steroid injections as definitive treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 decompression and instrumented fusion


Explanation

In the setting of symptomatic degenerative spondylolisthesis with clear dynamic instability (>3-4 mm of translation on dynamic views), decompression alone risks catastrophic postoperative destabilization. Decompression with instrumented fusion is the gold standard.

Question 1674

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral hand clumsiness, gait instability, and hyperreflexia. MRI demonstrates severe cervical stenosis with myelomalacia at C4-C5. He has neutral sagittal alignment and denies any neck pain. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. C4-C5 Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion (ACDF)
. Posterior cervical laminectomy without fusion
. Cervical disc arthroplasty
. C4-C5 posterior foraminotomy
. Physical therapy and bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C4-C5 Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion (ACDF)


Explanation

ACDF provides direct anterior decompression and stabilization for localized cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Laminectomy alone in a patient without lordosis carries a high risk of post-laminectomy kyphosis.

Question 1675

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication that improves with leaning forward. MRI shows severe L4-L5 central stenosis with a mobile grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of conservative care. What is the preferred surgical intervention?

. L4-L5 laminectomy alone
. L4-L5 laminectomy and instrumented posterolateral fusion
. Interspinous spacer placement
. L4-L5 anterior lumbar interbody fusion alone
. Intradiscal electrothermal therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 laminectomy and instrumented posterolateral fusion


Explanation

Laminectomy combined with instrumented fusion is historically preferred for degenerative spondylolisthesis with stenosis, as it provides superior long-term clinical outcomes and prevents progressive instability compared to decompression alone.

Question 1676

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with worsening hand clumsiness, a positive Hoffman's sign, and lower extremity hyperreflexia. MRI shows severe cervical stenosis at C4-C6 with cord signal changes. He undergoes a C4-C6 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). Postoperatively, he exhibits isolated new-onset right deltoid and biceps weakness without sensory deficits. What is the most likely etiology of this new neurological deficit?

. C5 palsy from root tethering or traction
. Postoperative epidural hematoma
. Recurrent disc herniation
. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion
. Graft subsidence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 palsy from root tethering or traction


Explanation

C5 nerve root palsy is a known complication following cervical decompression, typically presenting as isolated deltoid and/or biceps weakness. It is thought to occur due to the posterior shift of the spinal cord resulting in traction on the relatively tethered C5 nerve root.

Question 1677

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with worsening lower back pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and saddle anesthesia. He reports recent episodes of urinary incontinence. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate step in management?

. Prescribe a short course of high-dose oral corticosteroids
. Schedule an outpatient electromyography (EMG) study
. Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine
. Fluoroscopically guided epidural steroid injection
. Discharge with physical therapy and close follow-up

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine


Explanation

The patient is presenting with classic red flag symptoms of cauda equina syndrome (saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction, bilateral weakness). Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine is required to confirm the diagnosis and plan for immediate surgical decompression.

Question 1678

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female is evaluated for a total hip arthroplasty. Standing and sitting lateral radiographs reveal a stiff lumbar spine with less than 10 degrees of pelvic tilt change between positions. To minimize the risk of posterior dislocation during sitting, how should the acetabular component be positioned?

. Increased anteversion and inclination
. Decreased anteversion and increased inclination
. Decreased anteversion and decreased inclination
. Neutral version with 30 degrees of inclination
. Standard Lewinnek safe zone parameters apply regardless of spine stiffness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased anteversion and inclination


Explanation

Patients with a stiff lumbar spine fail to adequately increase pelvic retroversion when transitioning from standing to sitting, which limits anterior clearance and increases the risk of posterior dislocation. To compensate, the acetabular cup should be placed in increased anteversion and inclination.

Question 1679

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with a history of lumbar spinal fusion (L3-S1) for degenerative scoliosis is undergoing a primary total hip replacement for severe osteoarthritis. Pre-operative planning includes standard AP pelvis and lateral hip radiographs. The surgeon is concerned about optimizing acetabular component positioning to minimize dislocation risk. Given the patient's spinal history, which additional pre-operative imaging and consideration would be most beneficial for surgical planning?

. Dynamic fluoroscopy of the hip in flexion and extension.
. MRI of the hip to assess abductor muscle integrity.
. Lateral standing and seated radiographs of the spine and pelvis to assess spinopelvic kinematics.
. Bone scan to rule out occult infection or loosening.
. CT angiogram to map the neurovascular structures around the hip.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral standing and seated radiographs of the spine and pelvis to assess spinopelvic kinematics.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe teaching case specifically highlights the importance of considering spinal pathology in pre-operative planning: 'In patients with spinal pathology (e.g., fusion, severe kyphosis), altered pelvic tilt dynamics can significantly impact functional acetabular orientation, necessitating customized component placement strategies. A lateral standing and seated radiograph may be helpful.' Lumbar spinal fusion can significantly alter the patient's pelvic tilt and mobility, which in turn changes the functional acetabular anteversion and inclination in different positions (e.g., standing vs. sitting). Understanding these spinopelvic kinematics is crucial for patient-specific acetabular component positioning to avoid impingement and dislocation throughout the patient's functional range of motion.A. Dynamic fluoroscopy of the hip in flexion and extension:While useful intraoperatively for some approaches (like DAA), it's not the primary pre-operative tool for assessing spinopelvic dynamics in the context of spinal fusion.B. MRI of the hip to assess abductor muscle integrity:While abductor integrity is important for stability, it's not the most relevant additional study for optimizing acetabular positioning in a patient with spinal fusion.D. Bone scan to rule out occult infection or loosening:This is typically indicated for suspected infection or loosening, not for primary THR planning related to spinal pathology.E. CT angiogram to map the neurovascular structures around the hip:This is generally reserved for complex cases with suspected vascular anomalies or for planning vascularized grafts, not routine THR planning for dislocation prevention.

Question 1680

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents for a right total hip arthroplasty (THA). Radiographs demonstrate complete autofusion of the lumbar spine and a rigid spinopelvic junction. Compared to a patient with normal spinopelvic mobility, how does this patient's condition affect acetabular mechanics and instability risk?

. The pelvis will excessively retrovert during sitting, increasing the risk of anterior dislocation.
. The pelvis will fail to retrovert during sitting, increasing the risk of anterior impingement and posterior dislocation.
. The pelvis will fail to antevert during standing, increasing the risk of posterior impingement and anterior dislocation.
. The safe zone for acetabular component placement remains unchanged, but a dual mobility cup is absolutely contraindicated.
. Acetabular functional anteversion will dramatically increase during the transition from standing to sitting.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The pelvis will fail to retrovert during sitting, increasing the risk of anterior impingement and posterior dislocation.


Explanation

In a patient with a rigid spinopelvic junction, the pelvis cannot naturally retrovert to accommodate hip flexion when sitting. This lack of dynamic posterior pelvic tilt leads to a functional decrease in acetabular anteversion, predisposing the hip to anterior impingement and subsequent posterior dislocation.