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Question 1261

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old man with Ankylosing Spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall from a standing height. He reports new-onset severe lower back pain but is neurologically intact. Standard AP and lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine are unremarkable. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and muscle relaxants
. Order a DEXA scan to evaluate for osteoporosis
. Perform a CT or MRI of the entire spine
. Prescribe physical therapy focusing on extension exercises
. Obtain flexion-extension lumbar radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform a CT or MRI of the entire spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigid, osteoporotic spines making them highly susceptible to unstable "chalk-stick" fractures, even from minor trauma. An occult fracture must be ruled out with advanced imaging (CT or MRI) when plain films are negative.

Question 1262

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-year-old boy presents with diffuse bone pain, poor wound healing, and bleeding gums. Radiographs show a thickened metaphyseal band (Frankel line) and an adjacent radiolucent zone (Trummerfeld zone). A deficiency in which of the following biochemical processes is most likely responsible?

. Mineralization of newly formed osteoid
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Cleavage of type 1 procollagen terminals
. Gamma-carboxylation of osteocalcin
. Synthesis of fibrillin-1 microfibrils

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues


Explanation

The patient has scurvy due to Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is a crucial cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases, which are required for the cross-linking and stabilization of the collagen triple helix.

Question 1263

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with progressive hand clumsiness, gait instability, and hyperreflexia in both lower extremities. MRI shows severe cervical stenosis at C4-C5. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for cervical myelopathy?

. Lhermitte sign
. Spurling sign
. Positive Babinski reflex
. Inverted supinator reflex
. Positive straight leg raise

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted supinator reflex


Explanation

The inverted supinator reflex (finger flexion when testing the brachioradialis reflex) is a highly specific upper motor neuron sign for cervical myelopathy. Spurling sign tests for cervical radiculopathy, not myelopathy.

Question 1264

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old male sustains a burst fracture of L1 after a fall. He has no neurologic deficits. Which radiographic finding is the strongest indication for operative stabilization rather than non-operative management?

. 10 degrees of regional kyphosis
. 20% loss of anterior vertebral body height
. Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC)
. Widening of the pedicles on AP radiograph
. Retropulsion of bone into 10% of the spinal canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC)


Explanation

Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) makes a thoracolumbar burst fracture highly mechanically unstable. According to the TLICS system, PLC disruption is a strong indication for surgical stabilization.

Question 1265

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old patient with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis presents with bone pain. Radiographs reveal subperiosteal bone resorption of the radial aspect of the middle phalanges and a 'rugger-jersey' spine. Which of the following pathophysiologic sequences best explains these findings?

. Decreased phosphate excretion leading to hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism
. Increased calcitriol production leading to hypercalcemia
. Primary autonomous hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
. Deposition of beta-2 microglobulin amyloid in bone
. Defective mineralization of osteoid due to vitamin C deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased phosphate excretion leading to hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism


Explanation

In renal osteodystrophy, failing kidneys retain phosphate and fail to convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. This leads to hypocalcemia, which stimulates the parathyroid glands to overproduce PTH, causing secondary hyperparathyroidism and subperiosteal resorption.

Question 1266

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy with a highly restricted diet presents with gingival bleeding, petechiae, and bone pain. Radiographs of his knees show a dense zone of provisional calcification (Frankel line) and a radiolucent zone adjacent to it (Trummerfeld zone). The underlying biochemical defect involves impaired:

. Gamma-carboxylation of osteocalcin
. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminal propeptides
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Cross-linking of elastin via lysyl oxidase
. Synthesis of chondroitin sulfate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues


Explanation

The clinical picture describes scurvy, caused by Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency. Vitamin C is an essential cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases, which are required for the stable triple-helix formation of collagen.

Question 1267

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old child presents with short stature, corneal clouding, and severe genu valgum. Radiographs of the cervical spine reveal hypoplasia of the odontoid process. Urinalysis demonstrates high levels of keratan sulfate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Hurler syndrome
. Hunter syndrome
. Morquio syndrome
. Gaucher disease
. Sanfilippo syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Morquio syndrome


Explanation

Morquio syndrome (MPS Type IV) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency in enzymes degrading keratan sulfate. Odontoid hypoplasia is a hallmark skeletal feature that poses a high risk for atlantoaxial instability and myelopathy.

Question 1268

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old recent immigrant presents with chronic back pain, intermittent night sweats, and a progressive kyphotic deformity of the thoracic spine. MRI demonstrates destruction of the T8 and T9 vertebral bodies with relative sparing of the intervertebral disc initially, along with a large paraspinal fluid collection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Pyogenic spondylodiscitis
. Multiple myeloma
. Tuberculous spondylitis (Pott's disease)
. Metastatic lung carcinoma
. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tuberculous spondylitis (Pott's disease)


Explanation

Tuberculous spondylitis frequently presents with indolent symptoms, kyphosis, and large paraspinal (cold) abscesses. Unlike pyogenic infections, TB often begins in the anterior vertebral body and spares the disc space until late in the disease process.

Question 1269

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-speed motor vehicle collision complaining of severe lower neck pain. Neurological exam is normal. Plain radiographs are difficult to interpret due to pre-existing deformity. What is the most appropriate next step?

. Discharge with a soft collar and NSAIDs
. Perform flexion-extension radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine
. Perform an MRI of the lumbar spine
. Initiate aggressive physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines highly susceptible to unstable fractures even from minor trauma. A CT scan of the entire cervical spine is mandatory to rule out an occult fracture, as plain films are notoriously inadequate in this population.

Question 1270

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old woman with severe, long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an elective total knee arthroplasty. Before clearing her for surgery, the anesthesiologist requests specific imaging to assess the risk of a catastrophic complication during intubation. Which imaging study is required?

. Cervical spine MRI without contrast
. Chest computed tomography
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine
. Carotid artery duplex ultrasound
. Anteroposterior pelvis radiograph

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with severe rheumatoid arthritis are at high risk for atlantoaxial subluxation. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine are essential preoperatively to evaluate for instability that could cause spinal cord injury during endotracheal intubation.

Question 1271

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, and perineal numbness. He reports difficulty initiating urination. Which of the following clinical findings is considered the most sensitive for diagnosing cauda equina syndrome?

. Post-void residual bladder volume greater than 100-200 mL
. Absent Achilles tendon reflexes
. Weakness in the extensor hallucis longus bilaterally
. A positive straight leg raise test at 30 degrees
. Loss of voluntary anal sphincter contraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Post-void residual bladder volume greater than 100-200 mL


Explanation

Urinary retention is the hallmark early sign of cauda equina syndrome. A post-void residual volume greater than 100-200 mL is highly sensitive and should prompt emergent MRI and surgical decompression.

Question 1272

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old female on warfarin for atrial fibrillation requires emergency surgical decompression for cauda equina syndrome. Her INR is 3.5. What is the most effective therapy for the rapid reversal of her anticoagulation?

. Intravenous Vitamin K alone
. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
. Protamine sulfate
. Cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)


Explanation

Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) provides the most rapid and complete reversal of vitamin K antagonists like warfarin. Intravenous Vitamin K is typically given concurrently but takes hours to take effect.

Question 1273

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents with insidious onset of dyspnea. Pulmonary function tests demonstrate a normal FEV1/FVC ratio but decreased total lung capacity. Which pulmonary complication is most characteristic of this underlying disease?

. Apical pulmonary fibrosis
. Basilar atelectasis
. Spontaneous pneumothorax
. Pulmonary hypertension
. Emphysema

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Apical pulmonary fibrosis


Explanation

Apical pulmonary fibrosis is a classic extra-articular manifestation of advanced ankylosing spondylitis. It presents as a restrictive lung disease pattern on pulmonary function tests.

Question 1274

Topic: 6. Spine

A 32-year-old male with known spinal tuberculosis at T8-T9 presents with new-onset lower extremity weakness and hyperreflexia. The neurological deficit in Pott's disease is most commonly directly caused by which of the following?

. Direct tubercular viral myelitis
. Epidural abscess or granulation tissue compressing the cord
. Ischemia from anterior spinal artery thrombosis
. Central intervertebral disc herniation
. Facet joint hypertrophy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epidural abscess or granulation tissue compressing the cord


Explanation

Neurological deficits in Pott's disease typically result from mechanical compression of the spinal cord by an epidural abscess, inflammatory granulation tissue, or posterior displacement of bony fragments.

Question 1275

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old immigrant presents with a 6-month history of insidious mid-back pain, low-grade fevers, and recent-onset lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals destruction of the T8 and T9 vertebral bodies with relative preservation of the intervertebral disc initially, along with a large paraspinal fluid collection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Pyogenic spondylodiscitis
. Metastatic lung carcinoma
. Tuberculous spondylitis
. Multiple myeloma
. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tuberculous spondylitis


Explanation

Tuberculous spondylitis (Pott disease) typically presents with insidious back pain, constitutional symptoms, and paraspinal abscesses. Unlike pyogenic infections, TB often begins in the anterior vertebral body and characteristically spares the disc space until late in the disease.

Question 1276

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of severe rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for elective total knee arthroplasty. She reports occasional neck stiffness but no radicular pain. Which of the following preoperative imaging studies is mandatory prior to general anesthesia?

. High-resolution CT of the chest
. Flexion and extension lateral cervical spine radiographs
. MRI of the lumbar spine
. Bilateral hand and wrist radiographs
. Ultrasound of the carotid arteries

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion and extension lateral cervical spine radiographs


Explanation

Patients with severe rheumatoid arthritis are at high risk for atlantoaxial instability. Flexion-extension lateral cervical spine radiographs are mandatory to rule out subluxation, which could lead to fatal spinal cord compression during endotracheal intubation.

Question 1277

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis and a classic bamboo spine presents for elective bilateral total hip arthroplasty. Preoperative pulmonary function testing is performed. What pattern of lung disease is most expected in this patient?

. Obstructive pattern with decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
. Restrictive pattern with normal FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased total lung capacity
. Normal spirometry with impaired diffusion capacity (DLCO)
. Obstructive pattern with a positive bronchodilator response
. Normal spirometry with elevated residual volume

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restrictive pattern with normal FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased total lung capacity


Explanation

Ankylosing spondylitis causes fusion of the costovertebral joints and thoracic spine rigidity, leading to severely restricted chest wall expansion. This results in a classic restrictive pulmonary defect on spirometry.

Question 1278

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with deteriorating handwriting, frequent dropping of objects, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign and hyperreflexia in both lower extremities. MRI demonstrates severe cervical stenosis at C4-C5 with a hyperintense signal within the spinal cord on T2-weighted images. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Cervical epidural steroid injection
. Physical therapy and cervical traction
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)
. Oral gabapentin and close observation
. Posterior lumbar decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)


Explanation

The patient exhibits classic signs of cervical spondylotic myelopathy with MRI confirmation of cord compression and myelomalacia. Surgical decompression, such as ACDF, is indicated to halt the progression of neurologic deficits.

Question 1279

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). What is the primary mechanism of this injury?

. Hyperflexion and rotation
. Axial loading and lateral bending
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Hyperflexion and distraction
. Lateral mass compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture (bilateral pars interarticularis fractures of C2) is classically caused by hyperextension and axial loading. This mechanism leads to bilateral failure of the pars interarticularis.

Question 1280

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, and new-onset urinary retention. An MRI reveals a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. To maximize the chance of neurologic recovery, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what timeframe?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 24 to 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week
. Timing does not affect neurologic outcome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24 to 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome with urinary retention is an absolute surgical emergency. Decompression should ideally be performed within 24 to 48 hours to maximize the recovery of bladder and bowel function.