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Question 821

Topic: 6. Spine

A 38-year-old man injured his neck and spinal cord 6 months ago as a result of a motorcycle accident. He is now a C 6 quadriplegic. He wants to know how his sexual function will be affected by his condition. The patient should be informed that:

. He should be able to obtain normal erections and ejaculation function.
. No erections or ejaculation function will exist.
. With external stimulation, a reflex erection is possible but normal ejaculation is not.
. Normal erections and ejaculations with low sperm counts are possible.
. He has a low probability of being sterile because precise control of thermal regulation of the testes is usually retained.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. With external stimulation, a reflex erection is possible but normal ejaculation is not.


Explanation

With this type of spinal cord injury, it is possible to have an erection with external stimulation; however, ejaculation would have to be facilitated by electrical stimulation or vibratory means.

Question 822

Topic: 6. Spine

When testing the range of motion in the lumbar spine, which maneuver involves stretching of the interspinous and supraspinous ligaments, ligamentum flavum, and posterior longitudinal ligament while relaxing the anterior longitudinal ligament:

. Flexion
. Extension
. Lateral bending
. Lateral bending
. None of the above

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion


Explanation

Flexion of the lumbar spine creates stretching or tension of the posterior spinal structures including the interspinous and supraspinous ligaments, ligamentum flavum, and posterior longitudinal ligament. Flexion also allows relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament. This is often elicited by having a patient bend forward in attempt to touch the floor with the fingertips. If the patient cannot touch the floor, the distance from the floor to fingertips is measured in fingerbreadths or inches.

Question 823

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old woman sustained an injury to her low back 1 year ago while playing rugby. She now complains of excruciating low back pain with numbness and tingling into her left buttock. This pain is affecting her daily living activities. The patient underwent 6 months of conservative management consisting of restriction of activities, physical therapy, and anti- inflammatory medication with little relief. Based on the image below, the next appropriate step in the management of this patient is:

. C ontinued conservative management
. Posterolateral fusion at the L5/S1 level with bone graft
. Laminectomy at the L2/L3 level
. Laminectomy at the L3/L4 level
. Diskectomy at the L3/L4 level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral fusion at the L5/S1 level with bone graft


Explanation

The patient has an L5/S1 spondylysis with a grade 1 spondylolisthesis. This patient has undergone a sufficient attempt at conservative management with continued unrelenting low back pain. The next most appropriate step in the management of this condition is a posterolateral fusion at the L5/S1 level with autologous bone graft.

Question 824

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man comes to the office complaining of low back and thigh pain that has been progressively getting worse over the years. The pain now bothers him during weather changes. The patient tells you that his pain is worse with standing and walking for long periods. However, leaning forward and sitting alleviates his discomfort. The patient denies any bladder or bowel complaints. This patient most likely has:

. A herniated lumbar disk
. Cauda equina syndrome
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Spinal cord tumor
. Vascular insufficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lumbar spinal stenosis


Explanation

This patient is presenting with the hallmark symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis, which consists of increased back and thigh pain with walking or standing with relief of the symptoms by leaning forward or sitting down. This patient denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction that makes cauda equina syndrome unlikely. Although urinary dysfunction is uncommon in spinal stenosis, it can occur in approximately 3% to 4% of cases.

Question 825

Topic: 6. Spine

A positive straight-leg raise sign:

. Occurs when the obturator nerve is stretched
. Is always associated with a history of trauma or injury
. Is important in predicting a successful outcome if surgery is performed to excise the herniated fragment
. Is a specific test to detect a lumbar disk herniation
. Is not sensitive in detecting a lumbar disk herniation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Is important in predicting a successful outcome if surgery is performed to excise the herniated fragment


Explanation

A positive straight-leg raise sign occurs when the sciatic nerve is placed under tension or is stretched reproducing a radiculopathy. It is also suggestive of inflammation around the nerve root, hence it is a good predictor of the successful relief of symptoms from surgical decompression. Additionally, a positive straight-leg raise sign is a relatively sensitive test for detecting a lumbar disk herniation, but it is not specific. Because the sign is not specific, it does not necessarily correspond to trauma or injury.

Question 826

Topic: 6. Spine

In describing idiopathic scoliosis, there are several terms given to curve patterns on radiographs to describe the specific type of spinal deformity present. Which term best describes an area of the spine with a lateral curve that lacks normal flexibility noted radiographically by its failure to demonstrate segmental mobility or correction on supine side-bending radiographs:

. Primary curve
. C ompensatory curve
. Major curve
. Minor curve
. Structural curve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Structural curve


Explanation

The above question is describing a structural (nonflexible) curve. A primary curve is the earliest of several curves that may eventually develop. The term major curve is used to designate the largest structural curve. The minor curve refers to the smallest structural curve and is usually more flexible than the major curve. The compensatory curve is located above or below a major curve to attempt to maintain normal body alignment.

Question 827

Topic: 6. Spine

When trying to distinguish hamstring tightness/discomfort from sciatic pain/radiculopathy, surgeons can perform a straight-leg raise test on the affected side until the point at which the patient develops discomfort. This is followed by slightly lowering the affected extremity. While holding the patient's leg in this position, what maneuver could be performed in order to help reproduce true sciatic pain:

. Rotate the patient's foot medially 10°
. Rotate the patient's foot laterally 10°
. Plantarflex the patient's foot
. Dorsiflex the patient's foot
. Perform a Babinski test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsiflex the patient's foot


Explanation

Dorsiflexion of the foot, known as Braggard test, adds additional tension or stretch to the sciatic nerve and may help reproduce the sciatic pain/radiculopathy.

Question 828

Topic: 6. Spine

Which anatomic structure(s) may be the cause of referred pain to the lumbar spine region:

. The hip
. The rectum
. The pelvis
. Both the hip and the pelvis
. The hip, the pelvis, and the rectum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The hip, the pelvis, and the rectum


Explanation

The hip, rectum, and pelvis may refer pain to the lumbar spine region. In order to perform a complete physical examination, a rectal exam is recommended on all patients with pain in the lumbar spine region.

Question 829

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man with a known history of severe cervical spondylosis falls forward and strikes his chin. He is brought to the emergency department presenting with severe weakness in his upper extremities, particularly the hands, but retains the ability to move his legs against gravity. Which spinal cord syndrome does this presentation most likely represent?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically occurs in elderly patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis following a hyperextension injury. It disproportionately affects the medially located cervical motor tracts, leading to greater weakness in the upper extremities than the lower extremities.

Question 830

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with a 2-week history of progressively worsening mid-back pain, low-grade fever, and a recent onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness. What is the most common causative organism for the suspected diagnosis?

. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Escherichia coli
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

The classic clinical triad of a spinal epidural abscess consists of back pain, fever, and neurologic deficit. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism overall.

Question 831

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a minor trip and fall at home. He complains of new-onset neck pain but has no neurologic deficits. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine are heavily obscured by his shoulders. What is the next best step in management?

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar and NSAIDs
. Perform dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine
. Obtain an MRI of the brachial plexus
. Prescribe physical therapy and closely observe

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly rigid spines that are extremely susceptible to fractures, even from trivial trauma. A CT scan of the cervical spine is mandatory in this population to rule out occult fractures when plain films are inadequate or negative.

Question 832

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old man dives into a shallow pool and sustains a Jefferson burst fracture of the atlas (C1). According to the rule of Spence, what is the threshold of total combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on an open-mouth odontoid radiograph that suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament?

. 3.0 mm
. 5.2 mm
. 6.9 mm
. 8.5 mm
. 10.0 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 6.9 mm


Explanation

A total combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 articular facets greater than 6.9 mm on an AP open-mouth radiograph implies a highly probable rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the fracture unstable.

Question 833

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. Based on the likely diagnosis shown in the representative MRI, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention if prolonged conservative management fails?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Lumbar laminectomy
. Intradiscal electrothermal therapy
. Lumbar microdiscectomy
. Sacroiliac joint fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lumbar laminectomy


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for neurogenic claudication due to lumbar spinal stenosis. Lumbar laminectomy (decompression) is the gold standard surgical treatment for symptomatic central canal stenosis refractory to conservative measures.

Question 834

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 19-year-old female is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing only a lap belt. She sustains a Chance fracture of L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be highly suspected and ruled out?

. Aortic dissection
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Hollow viscus injury
. Pelvic ring disruption
. Renal avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Chance fractures are flexion-distraction injuries highly associated with lap belt use. Approximately 40-50% of these patients have concomitant intra-abdominal injuries, particularly to hollow viscous organs like the small bowel.

Question 835

Topic: 6. Spine

A 32-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle accident with neck pain. Neurological examination is intact. Based on the lateral cervical spine radiograph below, what is the most appropriate initial management for a Type II traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. C1-C2 posterior fusion
. Rigid cervical collar for 4 weeks
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

Type II traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) with significant angulation or translation is typically managed with Halo immobilization. Type I fractures are generally stable and can be managed with a rigid cervical collar.

Question 836

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female complains of bilateral leg pain and heaviness that worsens after walking two blocks. The pain is relieved when she sits or leans forward over a shopping cart. What is the most likely anatomic cause of her symptoms?

. Degeneration of the pars interarticularis
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum
. Acute herniation of the nucleus pulposus
. Peripheral arterial occlusion
. Isthmic spondylolisthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication from lumbar spinal stenosis is typically caused by degenerative changes including ligamentum flavum hypertrophy, facet arthropathy, and disc bulging. Symptoms are classically relieved by lumbar flexion, which increases the spinal canal volume.

Question 837

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male sustains a severe hyperflexion injury to his thoracic spine. On examination, he has no motor function below the umbilicus and no sensation except for intact perianal sensation (S4-S5). There is no voluntary anal sphincter contraction. What ASIA impairment scale grade does this represent?

. ASIA A
. ASIA B
. ASIA C
. ASIA D
. ASIA E

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ASIA B


Explanation

ASIA B designates an incomplete spinal cord injury where sensory function is preserved below the neurologic level, including sacral segments S4-S5, but no motor function is preserved. Sacral sparing is the hallmark of an incomplete spinal cord injury.

Question 838

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis undergoing pre-operative evaluation for a total hip arthroplasty, flexion-extension cervical radiographs are obtained. Which finding would most strongly indicate the need for prophylactic cervical spine stabilization?

. Anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 2 mm
. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of 12 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination of 1 mm
. C2-C3 facet arthrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of 12 mm


Explanation

A Posterior Atlantodental Interval (PADI) of 14 mm or less indicates impending cord compression and correlates better with neurologic deficit than ADI. PADI < 14 mm is a critical threshold often prompting surgical intervention in rheumatoid atlantoaxial subluxation.

Question 839

Topic: 6. Spine

A 75-year-old male with known cervical spondylosis falls forward, striking his chin. He presents with severe bilateral upper extremity weakness, particularly in the hands, but retains near-normal strength in his lower extremities. Pain and temperature sensation are diminished in a cape-like distribution. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Complete spinal cord transection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in patients with preexisting cervical spondylosis. It classically presents with disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.

Question 840

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old male suffers a stab wound to the right side of his back at the T8 level. Examination reveals loss of ipsilateral motor function and proprioception below the lesion, along with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Which spinal cord tract is responsible for the patient's loss of pain and temperature sensation?

. Dorsal columns
. Lateral corticospinal tract
. Spinothalamic tract
. Spinocerebellar tract
. Extrapyramidal tracts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinothalamic tract


Explanation

Brown-Sequard syndrome results from spinal cord hemisection. The spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature sensation; because these fibers cross early in the spinal cord, damage to the tract results in contralateral sensory loss below the lesion.