Menu

Question 7521

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old intravenous drug user presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness and bowel incontinence over 24 hours. MRI confirms a large dorsal epidural fluid collection with peripheral enhancement at T10. What is the most appropriate management?

. CT-guided aspiration and targeted IV antibiotics
. 6 weeks of broad-spectrum IV antibiotics alone
. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement
. High-dose intravenous corticosteroids
. Placement of a lumbar drain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement


Explanation

Spinal epidural abscess with progressive neurological deficits (such as weakness or cauda equina/conus medullaris syndrome) is a surgical emergency. Emergent decompression and debridement, along with IV antibiotics, are required to prevent permanent paralysis.

Question 7522

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old immigrant presents with back pain, night sweats, and a progressive thoracic kyphosis. MRI reveals destruction of the T8 and T9 vertebral bodies with a large paraspinal abscess, but the T8-T9 intervertebral disc space is remarkably preserved. What is the most likely pathogen?

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Streptococcus agalactiae
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
. Escherichia coli
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mycobacterium tuberculosis


Explanation

Tuberculous spondylitis (Pott's disease) typically begins in the subchondral bone of the vertebral body and initially spares the intervertebral disc because the mycobacterium lacks proteolytic enzymes. Pyogenic infections (like S. aureus) rapidly destroy the disc space.

Question 7523

Topic: 6. Spine

An infant is diagnosed with Morquio syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IVA). Orthopedic evaluation is requested. What is the most critical musculoskeletal complication that requires urgent screening in this patient?

. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
. Atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia
. Progressive scoliosis
. Carpal tunnel syndrome
. Hyperplastic callus formation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia


Explanation

Morquio syndrome (MPS IVA) is characterized by severe skeletal dysplasia, notably odontoid hypoplasia and ligamentous laxity. This combination severely predisposes patients to atlantoaxial instability and potential cervical myelopathy, requiring early radiographic screening.

Question 7524

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, night sweats, and weight loss. MRI of the spine reveals destruction of the T8 and T9 vertebral bodies with relative preservation of the intervertebral disc and a large paravertebral abscess. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Pyogenic spondylodiscitis
. Multiple myeloma
. Tuberculous spondylitis
. Metastatic prostate cancer
. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tuberculous spondylitis


Explanation

Tuberculous spondylitis (Pott's disease) characteristically causes extensive vertebral body destruction, often sparing the intervertebral disc until late in the disease process. A large paraspinal (psoas) cold abscess is a classic hallmark.

Question 7525

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old male is diagnosed with Gorham-Stout disease involving the thoracic spine and ribs.

He develops sudden onset dyspnea. What is the most common life-threatening complication associated with his condition?

. Malignant transformation to angiosarcoma
. Spontaneous pneumothorax
. Chylothorax
. Cardiac tamponade
. Massive pulmonary embolism

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

Gorham-Stout disease involving the shoulder girdle, ribs, or thoracic spine can lead to chylothorax due to lymphatic proliferation into the pleural cavity. Chylothorax is one of the most frequent causes of mortality in these patients.

Question 7526

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old male with a complete T6 spinal cord injury from an accident 3 months ago develops sudden swelling, warmth, and restricted range of motion in his right hip. Deep vein thrombosis is ruled out. Serum alkaline phosphatase is significantly elevated. What is the most sensitive early imaging modality to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

. Plain radiography
. MRI without contrast
. Triple-phase bone scan
. CT scan
. Ultrasonography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Triple-phase bone scan


Explanation

Triple-phase bone scanning is the most sensitive early imaging test for heterotopic ossification. It shows increased uptake before calcification is visible on plain radiographs.

Question 7527

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old boy with known Gorham's disease of the thoracic spine and ribs develops sudden-onset respiratory distress.

Chest radiograph reveals a large pleural effusion. What is the most likely nature of this effusion and its pathogenesis?

. Hemothorax due to rib fracture
. Chylothorax due to lymphatic dysplasia/extension
. Empyema from secondary infection
. Exudative effusion from systemic inflammation
. Transudate due to heart failure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax due to lymphatic dysplasia/extension


Explanation

Chylothorax is a classic and potentially life-threatening complication of Gorham-Stout disease when it involves the chest wall or thoracic spine. It results from the extension of the lymphangiomatous process into the pleural cavity.

Question 7528

Topic: 6. Spine

A 2-year-old boy with achondroplasia presents for evaluation. His parents are concerned about his prominent forehead and spinal curvature. On exam, he has a thoracolumbar kyphosis. What is the expected natural history of this spinal deformity?

. Rapid progression requiring immediate bracing
. Spontaneous resolution with ambulation
. Progression to severe scoliosis
. Development of early spinal stenosis
. Mandatory surgical fusion before age 3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spontaneous resolution with ambulation


Explanation

Thoracolumbar kyphosis is common in infants with achondroplasia due to trunk hypotonia and a large head. It typically resolves spontaneously once the child develops strength for weight-bearing and walking.

Question 7529

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with short stature, waddling gait, and joint pain. Radiographs reveal delayed, irregular ossification of the capital femoral epiphyses bilaterally. To differentiate between Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) and Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED), which radiographic finding is most diagnostic of SED?

. Double-layered patella
. Flattening of the vertebral bodies (platyspondyly)
. Narrowing of the interpedicular distances in the lumbar spine
. Erlenmeyer flask deformity of the distal femur
. Presence of wormian bones in the skull

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flattening of the vertebral bodies (platyspondyly)


Explanation

Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED) involves both the spine (causing platyspondyly or flattened vertebrae) and the epiphyses, leading to a short-trunk dwarfism. Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) typically spares the spine or involves it very mildly, resulting in a normal trunk length.

Question 7530

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old patient is diagnosed with Gorham-Stout disease affecting the clavicle, scapula, and upper ribs. Which of the following is a potentially fatal complication uniquely associated with this disease location?

. Malignant transformation to angiosarcoma
. Chylothorax
. Aortic aneurysm rupture
. Pathologic fracture of the cervical spine
. Refractory hypercalcemic crisis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

When Gorham-Stout disease involves the ribs, scapula, or thoracic spine, the lymphatic proliferation can extend into the pleural cavity, leading to chylothorax. This is a severe complication with a high mortality rate if not aggressively treated.

Question 7531

Topic: 6. Spine

A child with diastrophic dysplasia presents for routine orthopedic follow-up. He exhibits the classic features of short-limbed dwarfism, cauliflower ears, and hitchhiker thumbs. Which spinal deformity must be closely monitored due to its potential for rapid progression and neurologic compromise?

. Atlantoaxial rotary subluxation
. Cervical kyphosis
. Basilar invagination
. Thoracic hyperlordosis
. Lumbosacral spondylolisthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical kyphosis


Explanation

Cervical kyphosis is a hallmark and potentially dangerous complication of diastrophic dysplasia. While it can spontaneously resolve in some patients, it must be monitored closely as it can progress rapidly, leading to severe neurologic deficits or death.

Question 7532

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old child presents with a waddling gait and bilateral hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate delayed and irregular ossification of the capital femoral epiphyses bilaterally. To differentiate Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) from Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED), which radiographic feature is most specific to MED?

. Normal vertebral body heights and lack of significant platyspondyly
. Presence of severe coxa vara
. Erlenmeyer flask deformity of the distal femurs
. A markedly narrowed interpedicular distance in the lumbar spine
. Presence of a 'bone-in-bone' appearance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal vertebral body heights and lack of significant platyspondyly


Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) primarily affects the epiphyses of the appendicular skeleton, sparing the spine (normal vertebral height). In contrast, Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED) involves the spine, classically presenting with platyspondyly.

Question 7533

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old patient with known Gorham-Stout disease of the thoracic spine and ribs develops sudden respiratory distress.

What is the most common life-threatening complication associated with this specific anatomical involvement?

. Malignant transformation to angiosarcoma
. Spontaneous pneumothorax
. Chylothorax
. Pulmonary embolism
. Aortic aneurysm rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

In Gorham-Stout disease involving the thoracic cavity, extension of the lymphatic proliferation into the pleural space can cause a chylothorax. This is a severe and potentially fatal complication requiring medical therapy (e.g., Sirolimus) or surgical intervention.

Question 7534

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male presents with progressive shoulder pain and weakness. Radiographs demonstrate progressive dissolution of the proximal humerus without reactive bone formation, as shown in the image.

What is the most common life-threatening complication if this disease process involves the ribs or thoracic spine?

. Pulmonary embolism
. Chylothorax
. Malignant transformation to angiosarcoma
. High-output heart failure
. Epidural hematoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

This patient has Gorham's disease (massive osteolysis), characterized by non-neoplastic vascular and lymphatic proliferation causing bone resorption. Involvement of the ribs, scapula, or thoracic spine can lead to chylothorax, which is the most common life-threatening complication of this disorder.

Question 7535

Topic: 6. Spine

A 21-year-old male with confirmed Gorham-Stout disease involving the clavicle, scapula, and upper ribs is admitted to the intensive care unit. Which of the following is the most common life-threatening complication associated with this specific anatomic pattern of the disease?

. Malignant transformation to angiosarcoma
. Spinal cord compression
. Chylothorax
. High-output cardiac failure
. Spontaneous pneumothorax

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

Gorham-Stout disease involving the shoulder girdle, ribs, or thoracic spine carries a high risk of chylothorax. This occurs due to direct extension of the lymphatic dysplasia into the pleural cavity, which can lead to severe respiratory compromise and is a leading cause of mortality in these patients.

Question 7536

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male undergoes a spine radiograph for back pain.

The image shows an enlarged, densely sclerotic "picture frame" vertebral body. What complication is he at highest risk of developing directly related to this specific vertebral change?

. Discitis and osteomyelitis
. Spondylolysis
. Aortic aneurysm rupture
. Spinal stenosis and cord compression
. Meningocele

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal stenosis and cord compression


Explanation

Paget's disease of the spine can lead to an enlarged, sclerotic "picture frame" or "ivory" vertebra. The bony overgrowth can cause narrowing of the spinal canal and neuroforamina, leading to spinal stenosis and cord or nerve root compression.

Question 7537

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man is incidentally found to have an enlarged, dense vertebral body on a radiograph, presenting as a "picture frame" vertebra with thickened endplates.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteopetrosis
. Renal osteodystrophy
. Paget's disease
. Metastatic prostate cancer
. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Paget's disease


Explanation

The "picture frame" vertebra is characteristic of Paget's disease, caused by cortical thickening of the endplates and margins surrounding a relatively radiolucent, prominent trabecular center. It distinguishes from the "rugger jersey" spine of renal osteodystrophy.

Question 7538

Topic: 6. Spine



A patient presents with generalized bone sclerosis. A classic radiographic sign seen in the vertebral bodies of this condition is often described as:

. Bone-within-bone appearance
. Picture-frame vertebrae
. Bamboo spine
. H-shaped vertebrae
. Bullet-shaped vertebrae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-within-bone appearance


Explanation

Osteopetrosis classically presents radiographically with a "bone-within-bone" or "endobone" appearance in the spine, pelvis, and short tubular bones due to defective osteoclast resorption during growth.

Question 7539

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male with chronic back pain undergoes a lumbar spine radiograph. A single, enlarged vertebral body with prominent cortical thickening on all margins and central relative lucency is noted. What is the classical eponymous term for this finding in Paget's disease?

. Bamboo spine
. Rugger jersey spine
. Corduroy vertebra
. Picture frame vertebra
. Ivory vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Picture frame vertebra


Explanation

The 'picture frame' vertebra is a classic radiographic sign of Paget's disease. It occurs due to cortical thickening along the superior, inferior, and lateral margins of the vertebral body, surrounding a relatively radiolucent, structurally altered cancellous center.

Question 7540

Topic: 6. Spine

In Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia Congenita (SEDC), what is the most critical preoperative assessment required before any surgical intervention involving general anesthesia?

. Echocardiogram for valvular disease
. Pulmonary function tests
. Flexion-extension lateral cervical spine radiographs
. Renal ultrasound
. Coagulation profile

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion-extension lateral cervical spine radiographs


Explanation

Correct Answer: CPatients with SEDC (Type II collagenopathy) frequently have odontoid hypoplasia, leading to atlantoaxial instability (C1-C2). This poses a significant risk of spinal cord injury during intubation. Preoperative cervical spine clearance with dynamic films is mandatory.