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Question 701

Topic: 6. Spine

Thoracic disc herniations represent approximately what percentage of all symptomatic spinal disc herniations?

. Less than 1%
. 5-10%
. 15-20%
. 25-30%
. Greater than 40%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less than 1%


Explanation

Symptomatic thoracic disc herniations are rare, accounting for less than 1% of all herniated discs requiring surgery. This is partly due to the stability provided by the rigid rib cage.

Question 702

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following features on MRI indicates a worse prognosis for recovery following decompression of a thoracic disc herniation causing myelopathy?

. T2 hyperintensity in the disc space
. T1 hypointensity within the spinal cord
. Large volume of anterior osteophytes
. Modic type I changes in the adjacent endplates
. Thickening of the ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1 hypointensity within the spinal cord


Explanation

T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord indicates myelomalacia and cystic necrosis, which are irreversible structural changes. T2 hyperintensity alone may reflect edema and has a better prognosis.

Question 703

Topic: 6. Spine

The "safe zone" for inserting a pedicle screw in the mid-thoracic spine is limited medially by the spinal cord and laterally by the:

. Aorta
. Costovertebral joint
. Lung pleura
. Vena cava
. Sympathetic chain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Costovertebral joint


Explanation

The lateral boundary of the thoracic pedicle is the lateral cortex of the pedicle, bordered immediately by the costovertebral joint and the rib head.

Question 704

Topic: 6. Spine

What is the anatomical rationale for utilizing a right-sided thoracotomy approach rather than a left-sided approach for a central T7-T8 disc herniation?

. To avoid the artery of Adamkiewicz
. To avoid the superior vena cava
. To avoid the aorta
. To ensure easier access to the azygos vein
. Better access to the thoracic duct

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To avoid the aorta


Explanation

A right-sided thoracotomy is often preferred in the mid-to-lower thoracic spine to avoid the descending aorta, which is situated predominantly on the left side of the vertebral column.

Question 705

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient undergoes an anterior thoracic discectomy at T9-T10. Postoperatively, the patient develops a unilateral, segmental, severe neuropathic pain along the 9th rib. Which intraoperative action most likely caused this?

. Excessive retraction of the spinal cord
. Ligation of the segmental artery
. Excision of the sympathetic chain
. Injury to the intercostal nerve
. Placement of an epidural drain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Injury to the intercostal nerve


Explanation

Intercostal neuralgia is a known complication of transthoracic approaches, resulting from direct trauma, excessive retraction, or entrapment of the intercostal nerve during rib resection or chest closure.

Question 706

Topic: 6. Spine

When planning an anterior thoracotomy for a left-sided T9-T10 disc herniation, the surgeon must be mindful of the artery of Adamkiewicz to prevent anterior spinal artery syndrome. At what level and side does this radiculomedullary artery most commonly originate?

. Right T5-T8
. Left T5-T8
. Right T9-L1
. Left T9-L1
. Left L2-L4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Left T9-L1


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz provides the major arterial supply to the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. It most commonly arises from the left side of the aorta between the T9 and L1 levels in approximately 75% of patients.

Question 707

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is considered a distinct advantage of a costotransversectomy approach compared to an anterior transthoracic approach for the excision of a lateral thoracic disc herniation?

. Superior direct visualization of the anterior dural sac
. Avoidance of violating the pleural cavity
. Allows for easier anterior column reconstruction with a cage
. Decreased risk of injury to the posterior primary rami
. Provides bilateral foraminal decompression through a unilateral approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avoidance of violating the pleural cavity


Explanation

Costotransversectomy allows posterolateral access to the thoracic spine without entering the pleural cavity, reducing pulmonary complications and the need for chest tubes. However, it provides limited visualization across the midline compared to an anterior transthoracic approach.

Question 708

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

The classic Sorensen radiographic criteria for the diagnosis of Scheuermann's kyphosis require which of the following findings?

. Anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least 3 sequential vertebrae
. Anterior wedging of greater than 10 degrees in at least 2 sequential vertebrae
. Schmorl's nodes in at least 4 contiguous vertebrae
. Endplate irregularities in 3 non-sequential vertebrae
. Thoracic kyphosis greater than 40 degrees with neutral wedging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least 3 sequential vertebrae


Explanation

Sorensen criteria define Scheuermann's kyphosis strictly as anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least three consecutive vertebral bodies. Endplate irregularities and Schmorl's nodes are supportive findings but are not required for diagnosis.

Question 709

Topic: 6. Spine

To minimize the risk of ischemic spinal cord injury during a left-sided thoracotomy for a T8 corpectomy, how should the segmental vessels be managed?

. Ligated bilaterally at the neural foramen
. Ligated unilaterally at the mid-vertebral body
. Ligated unilaterally as close to the neural foramen as possible
. Ligated unilaterally at the anterior longitudinal ligament only
. Preserved by performing a subperiosteal dissection without any vessel ligation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligated unilaterally at the mid-vertebral body


Explanation

Segmental vessels should be ligated unilaterally at the mid-vertebral body rather than near the neural foramen. This preserves critical collateral anastomotic flow within the neural foramen, thereby reducing the risk of spinal cord ischemia.

Question 710

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old female complains of diffuse, glove-like numbness in both upper extremities accompanied by mid-thoracic back pain. Electromyography and cervical MRI are completely normal. A diagnostic sympathetic block at the upper thoracic level provides immediate and complete relief of her symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Thoracic outlet syndrome
. Cervical myelopathy
. T4 syndrome
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Syringomyelia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T4 syndrome


Explanation

T4 syndrome is a clinical condition characterized by upper extremity paresthesias (often non-dermatomal or glove-like) and sympathetic symptoms driven by upper thoracic spine dysfunction. It is often successfully managed with manual mobilization or sympathetic blocks.

Question 711

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male is incidentally noted to have flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of his thoracic spine. According to the Resnick criteria, which of the following is required to establish a diagnosis of Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)?

. Involvement of 3 contiguous vertebrae with sacroiliitis
. Flowing ossification of at least 4 contiguous vertebrae with preserved disc heights
. Bridging syndesmophytes with a positive HLA-B27
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament causing severe stenosis
. Disc space narrowing with the presence of a vacuum phenomenon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flowing ossification of at least 4 contiguous vertebrae with preserved disc heights


Explanation

The Resnick criteria for DISH require the presence of flowing ossification over at least four contiguous vertebral bodies and preservation of intervertebral disc height. Additionally, there must be an absence of apophyseal joint ankylosis and sacroiliac joint erosion.

Question 712

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old male sustains a T12 Chance fracture following a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing a lap belt. What associated injury must be urgently ruled out during his initial trauma evaluation?

. Aortic dissection
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Chance fractures are flexion-distraction injuries highly associated with lap seatbelt use. There is a high incidence (up to 50%) of concomitant intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus ruptures, which must be immediately excluded.

Question 713

Topic: 6. Spine

Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) in the thoracic spine most commonly presents with slowly progressive myelopathy and is most prevalent in which of the following patient demographics?

. Caucasian males
. African American females
. Middle Eastern males
. Japanese females
. Hispanic males

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Japanese females


Explanation

While cervical OPLL is slightly more common in East Asian males, thoracic OPLL is classically more prevalent in Japanese females. It is a known cause of severe, progressive thoracic myelopathy.

Question 714

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old patient falls from a height, sustaining a T11 burst fracture with 60% canal compromise. The patient is neurologically intact, and MRI confirms an intact posterior ligamentous complex. What is the most appropriate management plan?

. Emergent anterior decompression and fusion
. Posterior laminectomy without fusion
. Short segment pedicle screw fixation without fusion
. Mobilization with a Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO)
. Prolonged bed rest for 6 weeks followed by bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mobilization with a Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO)


Explanation

In a neurologically intact patient with a mechanically stable burst fracture (indicated by an intact posterior ligamentous complex), non-operative management with a TLSO is indicated. Significant spontaneous spinal canal remodeling typically occurs over time.

Question 715

Topic: 6. Spine

When placing pedicle screws in the thoracic spine, knowledge of normal morphometry is crucial. At which of the following thoracic levels are the pedicles typically the narrowest in their transverse dimension?

. T1 to T2
. T4 to T6
. T8 to T9
. T11 to T12
. T12 to L1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T4 to T6


Explanation

The transverse pedicle diameter in the thoracic spine is generally narrowest in the mid-thoracic region, specifically around T4 to T6. This makes pedicle screw placement at these levels technically demanding and carries a higher risk of pedicle breach.

Question 716

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient undergoes a transforaminal epidural steroid injection for a right T10 radiculopathy. Immediately post-procedure, the patient develops profound bilateral lower extremity flaccid paralysis and loss of pain sensation, but proprioception is preserved. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Dural puncture causing acute intracranial hypotension
. Local anesthetic neurotoxicity
. Spinal cord infarction due to particulate steroid embolus
. Epidural hematoma compressing the dorsal columns
. Direct needle trauma to the dorsal root ganglion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal cord infarction due to particulate steroid embolus


Explanation

The clinical presentation indicates anterior spinal artery syndrome. In the context of a thoracic transforaminal injection, this devastating complication is highly suspected to result from a particulate steroid embolus occluding a critical radiculomedullary artery.

Question 717

Topic: 6. Spine

During an initial clinical evaluation, a patient with a known central thoracic disk herniation demonstrates normal upper extremity reflexes but exhibits spastic paraparesis, hyperreflexia in the lower extremities, and absent abdominal reflexes. Based on these reflex findings, the lesion is most likely located above which spinal level?

. C5-C6
. T3-T4
. T9-T10
. L2-L3
. L4-L5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T3-T4


Explanation

Absent abdominal reflexes, combined with lower extremity upper motor neuron signs, localize the lesion above the lower thoracic segments. The superficial abdominal reflexes are mediated by levels T8 through T12.

Question 718

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old patient presents with symptoms of tandem spinal stenosis affecting both the cervical and thoracic regions. Which clinical finding uniquely distinguishes a thoracic myelopathy from a cervical myelopathy?

. Presence of a positive Hoffman sign
. Hyperreflexia of the patellar tendons
. Absence of upper extremity neurological deficits
. Presence of a positive Babinski sign
. Spastic gait disturbance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Absence of upper extremity neurological deficits


Explanation

Thoracic myelopathy leads to upper motor neuron signs in the lower extremities while completely sparing the upper extremities. A cervical myelopathy typically involves both upper (Hoffman sign, hyperreflexia) and lower extremity long tract signs.

Question 719

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man presents with progressive lower extremity weakness and myelopathy. Imaging reveals a large, central, calcified disc herniation at T8-T9 causing severe cord compression. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. Transthoracic anterior decompression
. Standard posterior laminectomy
. Transforaminal epidural injection
. Posterior spinal fusion without decompression
. Intradiscal electrothermal therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transthoracic anterior decompression


Explanation

A posterior laminectomy is strongly contraindicated for central thoracic disc herniations due to the high risk of iatrogenic spinal cord injury from medial cord retraction. Anterior or anterolateral approaches (e.g., transthoracic, costotransversectomy) are required to safely safely remove the calcified fragment.

Question 720

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior corpectomy for a T11 burst fracture, the surgeon must be mindful of the vascular supply to the anterior spinal cord. The artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly enters the spinal canal at which of the following locations?

. Right T4-T6
. Right T8-L1
. Left T8-L1
. Left T4-T6
. Midline T12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Left T8-L1


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz (great anterior radiculomedullary artery) provides major blood supply to the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. It typically arises from a left intercostal or lumbar artery between the levels of T8 and L1.