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Question 6841

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis is evaluated prior to elective surgery. Flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs are obtained. Which of the following parameters represents an absolute indication for operative stabilization of the cervical spine?

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm in an asymptomatic patient
. Space available for the cord (SAC) of 13 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination with the tip of the odontoid 2 mm above Chamberlain's line
. C1-C2 instability presenting with isolated mechanical neck pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Space available for the cord (SAC) of 13 mm


Explanation

In the rheumatoid cervical spine, a posterior atlantodental interval (PADI), also known as the space available for the cord (SAC), of less than 14 mm is the most reliable predictor of impending neurologic deficit and paralysis, making it an absolute indication for surgery. An ADI > 10 mm or basilar invagination > 5 mm above Chamberlain's line are also surgical indications.

Question 6842

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old gymnast presents with chronic low back pain that is heavily exacerbated by lumbar extension. Radiographs show a Grade 1 isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. What is the defining anatomic defect associated with this specific type of spondylolisthesis?

. Hypoplasia of the pedicles
. Defect or stress fracture of the pars interarticularis
. Degeneration of the facet joints
. Congenital absence of the posterior elements
. Rupture of the ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Defect or stress fracture of the pars interarticularis


Explanation

Isthmic spondylolisthesis (Wiltse Type II) is caused by a defect (spondylolysis), elongation, or acute fracture of the pars interarticularis. It is particularly common in adolescent athletes who perform repetitive spinal hyperextension, such as gymnasts and football linemen.

Question 6843

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-year-old child with a highly restricted diet presents with lower extremity pain, gingival bleeding, and perifollicular hemorrhages. Radiographs show a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel). The pathogenesis involves a deficiency in an essential cofactor required for which of the following enzymatic processes?

. Carboxylation of glutamate residues
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminal propeptides
. Cross-linking of elastin by lysyl oxidase
. Conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues


Explanation

The patient has scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency). Vitamin C is a required cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, enzymes essential for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen triple-helix formation.

Question 6844

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old patient with progressive cervical myelopathy is diagnosed with Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL). Lateral radiographs demonstrate a negative K-line. Which surgical approach is most appropriate to adequately decompress the spinal cord in this specific scenario?

. Posterior cervical laminectomy alone
. Posterior cervical laminoplasty
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior cervical foraminotomy
. Stand-alone anterior cervical discectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion


Explanation

The K-line connects the mid-anteroposterior diameter of the spinal canal at C2 and C7 on a neutral lateral radiograph. A 'negative K-line' means the OPLL mass extends posterior to this line, usually associated with cervical kyphosis. In K-line negative patients, posterior-only decompression (like laminoplasty or laminectomy) fails to allow the spinal cord to drift backward away from the OPLL, leading to poor neurological recovery. Anterior decompression (ACDF or corpectomy) and fusion is the indicated approach.

Question 6845

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man complains of bilateral buttock and posterior thigh pain that worsens with walking. You suspect neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. Which of the following historical features is most specific in differentiating neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain relief occurs immediately upon standing still
. Symptoms are worse when walking uphill
. Symptoms are relieved when leaning forward on a shopping cart
. Diminished pedal pulses on examination
. Presence of stocking-glove sensory loss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symptoms are relieved when leaning forward on a shopping cart


Explanation

The 'shopping cart sign' (relief of symptoms with lumbar flexion) is highly characteristic of neurogenic claudication due to lumbar spinal stenosis. Lumbar flexion increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina, relieving pressure on the nerve roots. In contrast, vascular claudication is worsened by the increased metabolic demand of walking (especially uphill) and is relieved simply by stopping and resting, regardless of posture.

Question 6846

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with lumbar spinal stenosis experiences relief of neurogenic claudication symptoms when leaning forward on a shopping cart. What is the primary biomechanical reason for this improvement in symptoms?

. Decreased axial loading on the intervertebral discs
. Unbuckling of the ligamentum flavum
. Reduction of a dynamic degenerative spondylolisthesis
. Increased tension on the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Opening of the anterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unbuckling of the ligamentum flavum


Explanation

In lumbar spinal stenosis, spinal extension leads to buckling of the hypertrophied ligamentum flavum into the spinal canal, decreasing the cross-sectional area and exacerbating neurogenic claudication. Flexion stretches the ligamentum flavum ('unbuckling' it) and increases the canal's cross-sectional area, providing symptomatic relief (the 'shopping cart' sign).

Question 6847

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed collision. He has flaccid paralysis and absent reflexes below C6. He is currently hypotensive (BP 80/40) and bradycardic (HR 45). Which of the following findings confirms neurogenic shock rather than isolated spinal shock?

. Absent bulbocavernosus reflex
. Flaccid paralysis below the level of the injury
. The combination of bradycardia and hypotension
. Areflexia in the lower extremities
. Preservation of sacral perianal sensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The combination of bradycardia and hypotension


Explanation

Neurogenic shock is a true hemodynamic disturbance caused by the loss of descending sympathetic tone, leading to unchecked vagal activity (bradycardia) and loss of vascular resistance (hypotension). Spinal shock refers solely to the temporary loss of somatic and autonomic reflexes below the level of injury.

Question 6848

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain and weakness that worsens after walking 2 blocks. He states the pain is relieved when he leans forward on a shopping cart. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms primarily contributes to this classic physical sign?

. Increased tension on the dural sac causing ischemia
. Flexion of the lumbar spine increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal
. Flexion decreases the vascular supply to the cauda equina
. Extension of the spine increases the intervertebral foraminal volume
. Flexion reduces tension on the sciatic nerve roots only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion of the lumbar spine increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal


Explanation

The patient's symptoms describe neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. Leaning forward (lumbar flexion) increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina by up to 12%, relieving compression on the neural elements and improving venous drainage, which momentarily alleviates ischemic pain to the nerve roots.

Question 6849

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old male falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. Neurological examination is completely normal. Radiographs and CT show 40% loss of anterior vertebral body height, 15 degrees of local kyphosis, and 30% canal compromise by a retropulsed bone fragment. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is the most appropriate initial management?

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior short-segment pedicle screw fixation
. Posterior laminectomy without fusion
. Conservative management with a TLSO brace
. Combined anterior-posterior stabilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conservative management with a TLSO brace


Explanation

The TLICS score assesses morphology (burst = 2 points), neurologic status (intact = 0 points), and posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) integrity (assumed intact in burst fractures without severe kyphosis = 0 points). A total score of 2 suggests non-operative management. A TLSO brace is the standard of care for neurologically intact patients with a mechanically stable burst fracture (TLICS < 4).

Question 6850

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with severe spinal stenosis complains of progressive leg pain, heaviness, and weakness that worsens with walking. To differentiate neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication, a bicycle test (van Gelderen test) is performed. Which of the following responses is characteristic of neurogenic claudication?

. Pain is rapidly reproduced while cycling with the spine in an extended posture, but relieved when cycling leaning forward in flexion.
. Pain occurs equally during cycling regardless of spinal posture, but is relieved immediately upon stopping pedaling.
. Leg pulses become non-palpable during exercise and return to normal after 10 minutes of rest.
. Pain is unaffected by posture but worsens symmetrically in both calves during uphill walking compared to downhill walking.
. Skin temperature of the lower extremities drops significantly during the cycling test.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain is rapidly reproduced while cycling with the spine in an extended posture, but relieved when cycling leaning forward in flexion.


Explanation

The bicycle test (van Gelderen test) is used to differentiate neurogenic from vascular claudication. In neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis), symptoms are exacerbated by spinal extension (which narrows the spinal canal and neuroforamina) and relieved by spinal flexion. Therefore, cycling while leaning forward (flexion) is well tolerated, whereas cycling sitting straight up (extension) reproduces the pain. Vascular claudication is dependent on muscle work (oxygen demand) regardless of spinal posture.

Question 6851

Topic: 6. Spine

A traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) most commonly occurs via which of the following injury mechanisms?

. Axial loading and hyperflexion
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Lateral bending and rotation
. Distraction and hyperflexion
. Pure rotational shear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture (traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 with bilateral pars interarticularis fractures) classically occurs due to a hyperextension and axial loading mechanism. This is often seen in motor vehicle accidents where an unbelted victim's chin strikes the dashboard.

Question 6852

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old male is admitted after a severe cervical spine fracture. He is hypotensive, bradycardic, and warm to the touch. This physiologic state is best described as:

. Spinal shock due to axonal disruption
. Neurogenic shock due to loss of sympathetic tone
. Hypovolemic shock due to internal hemorrhage
. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial contusion
. Autonomic dysreflexia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurogenic shock due to loss of sympathetic tone


Explanation

Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities. It is a distributive shock caused by the loss of sympathetic tone following a high spinal cord injury (typically above T6), leaving the parasympathetic tone unopposed. Spinal shock refers to a temporary physiologic areflexia and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury.

Question 6853

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking. Which finding on history or examination most reliably differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain relief with standing still
. Pain exacerbation with stationary cycling
. Pain relief with lumbar flexion
. Diminished pedal pulses
. Absence of pain during sleep

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain relief with lumbar flexion


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication typically improves with lumbar flexion, which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Vascular claudication improves simply with rest (standing still) and is exacerbated by any exertion, including stationary cycling.

Question 6854

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention with overflow incontinence. MRI reveals a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. What is the maximum recommended timeframe for surgical decompression to optimize neurological recovery?

. Within 12 hours
. Within 24-48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week
. After a trial of high-dose systemic corticosteroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24-48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Decompression should ideally be performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset to maximize the chances of full neurological recovery, particularly for bladder and bowel function.

Question 6855

Topic: 6. Spine

A trauma patient presents with acute spinal cord injury following a fall. Which of the following clinical findings most accurately differentiates neurogenic shock from spinal shock?

. Flaccid paralysis below the level of injury
. Loss of bulbocavernosus reflex
. Bradycardia and hypotension
. Areflexia and loss of autonomic function
. Return of spasticity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bradycardia and hypotension


Explanation

Neurogenic shock is a hemodynamic phenomenon caused by loss of sympathetic tone, resulting in hypotension and bradycardia. Spinal shock refers to the temporary physiological loss of all spinal cord function and reflexes below the injury level.

Question 6856

Topic: 6. Spine

A traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) typically involves bilateral fractures through the pars interarticularis of C2. In modern clinical practice (e.g., motor vehicle accidents), what is the most common mechanism of injury?

. Hyperflexion and rotation
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Axial distraction and hyperflexion
. Lateral bending and compression
. Hyperextension and axial distraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

While the historical mechanism (judicial hanging) involves hyperextension and axial distraction, modern Hangman's fractures usually result from motor vehicle accidents involving hyperextension combined with axial loading.

Question 6857

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with a known L4-L5 disc herniation presents to the emergency department with acute worsening of back pain, bilateral sciatica, and perineal numbness. Which of the following is the most sensitive early clinical indicator to suspect cauda equina syndrome?

. Decreased anal sphincter tone
. Saddle anesthesia
. Urinary retention
. Bilateral foot drop
. Absent Achilles reflexes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention


Explanation

Urinary retention is the most sensitive early symptom of cauda equina syndrome. If a patient does not have urinary retention (often assessed by confirming a low post-void residual volume), the diagnosis of cauda equina syndrome is highly unlikely.

Question 6858

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old female presents with deteriorating fine motor skills in her hands and recent gait instability. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally, hyperreflexia in the lower extremities, and an inverted brachioradialis reflex. Which of the following is the best imaging modality to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

. Computed tomography (CT) myelography
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine
. Plain cervical radiographs with dynamic flexion/extension views
. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)
. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies (EMG/NCS) of the upper extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine


Explanation

The patient's clinical presentation (clumsy hands, gait instability, upper motor neuron signs) is classic for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard imaging modality to evaluate spinal cord compression and myelomalacia.

Question 6859

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with severe, progressive back pain, low-grade fevers, and new-onset bilateral leg weakness. Inflammatory markers are significantly elevated. You suspect a spinal epidural abscess. What is the most common causative organism?

. Escherichia coli
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism responsible for spinal epidural abscesses, accounting for more than 50-60% of cases. Immediate MRI with gadolinium is the imaging modality of choice, followed by urgent surgical decompression if neurologic deficits are present.

Question 6860

Topic: 6. Spine

During the physical examination of a 60-year-old male with suspected cervical myelopathy, the examiner supports the patient's forearm and strikes the brachioradialis tendon with a reflex hammer. Instead of elbow flexion, the patient exhibits brisk finger flexion. What is this clinical sign called?

. Hoffmann sign
. Babinski sign
. Wartenberg sign
. Inverted radial reflex
. Clonus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted radial reflex


Explanation

The inverted radial reflex is a highly specific upper motor neuron sign for cervical spondylotic myelopathy at the C5-C6 level. Striking the brachioradialis tendon normally causes elbow flexion and slight supination (C6). A diminished C6 reflex combined with brisk finger flexion (hyperactive C8 response due to uninhibited lower levels) constitutes an inverted reflex.