This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6781
Topic: 6. Spine
A 78-year-old male with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive quadriparesis and severe neck pain. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C1-C2 posterior spinal fusion
Explanation
The patient has severe atlantoaxial instability (ADI > 9-10 mm is highly predictive of neurologic injury) and clinical myelopathy secondary to rheumatoid arthritis. The definitive treatment for C1-C2 instability with an intact subaxial spine is a C1-C2 posterior fusion.
Question 6782
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old female undergoes a posterior L4-L5 laminectomy and fusion for degenerative spondylolisthesis. On postoperative day 2, she develops a sudden severe headache, photophobia, and nausea when standing, which resolves when lying completely flat. The surgical wound is dry and intact. What is the most likely etiology of her symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inadvertent dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak
Explanation
Postural headaches that worsen upon standing and improve when supine are the hallmark of intracranial hypotension, most commonly due to a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from an incidental dural tear during spinal surgery.
Question 6783
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient with suspected diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) is evaluated in the clinic. Which of the following radiographic criteria is essential for the formal diagnosis of DISH (Resnick and Niwayama criteria)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies
Explanation
The diagnostic criteria for DISH established by Resnick and Niwayama include: 1) flowing ossification of the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies; 2) preservation of intervertebral disc height; 3) absence of apophyseal (facet) joint ankylosis and sacroiliac joint erosion/fusion.
Question 6784
Topic: 6. Spine
Which physical examination test is most specific for evaluating the presence of cervical radiculopathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spurling test
Explanation
The Spurling test (neck extension, lateral bending to the affected side, and axial compression) is highly specific for diagnosing cervical radiculopathy. It reproduces the radicular symptoms by narrowing the neural foramen.
Question 6785
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 45-year-old female undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6. During the immediate postoperative period in the recovery room, she develops a rapidly expanding anterior neck mass, respiratory distress, and stridor. What is the most critical and immediate step in her management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate bedside opening of the incision to evacuate the hematoma
Explanation
The patient is experiencing a postoperative prevertebral hematoma causing airway compromise. The standard of care is immediate bedside opening of the surgical incision (including superficial and deep fascial layers) to evacuate the hematoma and relieve pressure, followed by securing the airway and returning to the OR.
Question 6786
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of a solid instrumented lumbar fusion from L2 to the sacrum. How does this patient's prior spinal fusion alter the normal spinopelvic biomechanics during the transition from a standing to a sitting position, and what compensatory intraoperative adjustment in acetabular component positioning should the surgeon consider?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Her pelvis will excessively retrovert; the surgeon should place the cup in less anteversion.
Explanation
Patients with a stiff or fused lumbar spine lack the normal ability to retrovert their pelvis when transitioning from standing to sitting. In a normal spine, sitting causes posterior pelvic tilt (retroversion), which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the anterior acetabulum to accommodate the flexed femur. A fused spine prevents this, leading to anterior bony impingement and a high risk of posterior dislocation when sitting. To compensate, the surgeon should consider placing the acetabular component in slightly more anteversion and inclination to provide stability.
Question 6787
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old female presents with lower back pain and neurogenic claudication. Radiographs reveal a grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. At which spinal level is this condition most commonly found, and what anatomical variation is most heavily implicated in its pathogenesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-L5; sagittal orientation of the facet joints
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis occurs most frequently at the L4-L5 level. The primary anatomic predisposing factor is an abnormally sagittal orientation of the facet joints at this level. Normally, coronally oriented facets resist anterior shear forces. When the facets are more sagittally aligned, they fail to resist these shear forces, leading to anterior subluxation as the disc degenerates.
Question 6788
Topic: 6. Spine
A 52-year-old man presents with acute onset, severe right leg pain radiating down the anterior thigh to the medial aspect of his lower leg. Physical exam reveals weakness in knee extension and a diminished right patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a paracentral disc herniation typically affects the traversing nerve root (e.g., L4-L5 paracentral herniation compresses the L5 root). However, a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation impinges the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, a far lateral L4-L5 disc herniation compresses the exiting L4 nerve root. Symptoms of an L4 radiculopathy include pain radiating to the anterior thigh and medial leg, weakness of the quadriceps (knee extension), and a decreased patellar reflex.
Question 6789
Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old male presents with deteriorating fine motor skills in his hands and broad-based gait. Examination reveals hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and a positive Hoffmann's sign. Striking the brachioradialis tendon yields a diminished brachioradialis reflex but brisk, involuntary flexion of the ipsilateral fingers. What is this specific physical finding called, and what level of pathology does it indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inverted radial reflex; spinal cord compression at the C5-C6 level
Explanation
The finding described is the 'inverted radial reflex'. Tapping the brachioradialis tendon (innervated by C5-C6) normally elicits elbow flexion. In an inverted reflex, elbow flexion is absent or diminished (due to a lower motor neuron lesion at C5-C6), but the stimulus produces brisk flexion of the fingers (due to hyperreflexia of the C8-T1 levels caused by upper motor neuron compression at the C5-C6 level). It is classic for cervical spondylotic myelopathy localizing to C5-C6.
Question 6790
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall from a standing height. He reports severe, new-onset lower neck pain. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear heavily ossified but no obvious fracture is visualized. Neurologic examination is completely normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obtain an immediate CT scan of the cervical spine.
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines that act like long bones. They are exquisitely susceptible to highly unstable fractures even from trivial trauma. Fractures are frequently missed on plain radiographs due to altered anatomy, ossification, and the lower cervical/cervicothoracic junction being obscured by the shoulders. Any patient with AS presenting with new neck or back pain after a fall MUST undergo a CT scan of the spine to rule out a fracture.
Question 6791
Topic: 6. Spine
A 74-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock and calf pain that worsens with walking and is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart.
He undergoes a stationary bicycle test, during which he pedals continuously for 20 minutes while leaning forward without experiencing leg pain. What anatomical mechanism explains the relief of his symptoms during lumbar flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lumbar flexion unbuckles the ligamentum flavum, thereby increasing the cross-sectional area of the central spinal canal.
Explanation
The clinical picture describes neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. The hallmark of neurogenic claudication is that symptoms are exacerbated by lumbar extension and relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., shopping cart sign, riding a bicycle). Anatomically, lumbar flexion unfolds and stretches the ligamentum flavum (which buckles into the canal during extension) and opens the neural foramina. This acutely increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and foramina, relieving compression on the cauda equina and nerve roots.
Question 6792
Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old male undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On post-operative day 1, he demonstrates a new, isolated weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but sensation is fully intact. Which of the following is the most widely accepted etiology for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior shifting of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve root
Explanation
C5 palsy is a well-documented complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior approaches. It is most commonly attributed to the posterior drift of the spinal cord after decompression, which stretches and tethers the short C5 nerve root.
Question 6793
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old man undergoes an L4-L5 posterior decompression and fusion for severe spinal stenosis. Postoperatively, he develops a new foot drop and numbness over the dorsal web space between the first and second toes. Which nerve root is most likely injured, and what is the primary muscle affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5 / Extensor hallucis longus
Explanation
The L5 nerve root supplies the extensor hallucis longus, which is critical for great toe extension, and provides sensation to the first dorsal web space. Iatrogenic injury to the L5 root during L4-L5 surgery can present as a foot drop and these specific sensory deficits.
Question 6794
Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but no new sensory changes or long-tract signs. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5 nerve root palsy
Explanation
Postoperative C5 palsy is a known complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior laminectomy, due to posterior cord drift causing tethering of the C5 nerve root. It typically presents as deltoid and biceps weakness without sensory loss or myelopathy.
Question 6795
Topic: 6. Spine
When calculating the pelvic incidence (PI) in a patient with adult spinal deformity, which two anatomical landmarks are utilized to form the angle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Center of the femoral heads and the center of the S1 endplate
Explanation
Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the angle between a line perpendicular to the sacral plate at its midpoint and a line connecting this point to the axis of the femoral heads. It is crucial for planning sagittal balance correction.
Question 6796
Topic: 6. Spine
A 54-year-old diabetic male presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals an anterior epidural abscess at L2-L3 with extensive vertebral body destruction and kyphosis. He is unable to move his legs against gravity. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior corpectomy, strut grafting, and stabilization
Explanation
In the setting of an anterior epidural abscess with significant bony destruction and progressive neurologic deficit, an anterior corpectomy provides direct decompression and allows for strut grafting to restore anterior column stability. Posterior laminectomy alone is contraindicated as it further destabilizes the spine.
Question 6797
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer presents with severe, mechanical back pain. Which of the following parameters is evaluated in the Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) to determine her need for surgical stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of posterolateral spinal element involvement
Explanation
The SINS score assesses spinal instability in neoplastic disease based on six criteria: location, pain, bone lesion type, radiographic spinal alignment, vertebral body collapse, and posterolateral spinal element involvement. Tumor histology and life expectancy are used in other scores like Tokuhashi or Tomita, not SINS.
Question 6798
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis falls from a standing height. He complains of severe neck pain but his neurological examination is normal. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obtain an MRI or CT scan of the entire cervical spine
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly brittle, rigid spines that are extremely susceptible to fractures even from low-energy trauma. Normal plain radiographs are insufficient to rule out a fracture; advanced imaging (CT or MRI) is mandatory.
Question 6799
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old female presents with neurogenic claudication and an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. According to the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT), which of the following is true regarding her treatment options?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgery provides significantly better outcomes in pain and function at 4 years
Explanation
The SPORT trial demonstrated that for degenerative spondylolisthesis, surgical treatment (decompression and fusion) maintains a significant advantage over non-operative treatment in pain relief and functional improvement at the 4-year follow-up.
Question 6800
Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old man presents with acute onset of saddle anesthesia, bilateral sciatica, and urinary retention with a post-void residual volume >500 mL. An MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 herniated nucleus pulposus. Current literature suggests optimal clinical and functional outcomes are achieved if surgical decompression is performed within what maximum timeframe?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 48 hours
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Literature generally supports that decompression performed within 48 hours of symptom onset yields significantly better outcomes for bladder and motor function recovery.
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