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Question 6781

Topic: 6. Spine

A 78-year-old male with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive quadriparesis and severe neck pain. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Hard cervical collar for 3 months
. C1-C2 posterior spinal fusion
. Occipito-cervical fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. C1 laminectomy without fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C1-C2 posterior spinal fusion


Explanation

The patient has severe atlantoaxial instability (ADI > 9-10 mm is highly predictive of neurologic injury) and clinical myelopathy secondary to rheumatoid arthritis. The definitive treatment for C1-C2 instability with an intact subaxial spine is a C1-C2 posterior fusion.

Question 6782

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old female undergoes a posterior L4-L5 laminectomy and fusion for degenerative spondylolisthesis. On postoperative day 2, she develops a sudden severe headache, photophobia, and nausea when standing, which resolves when lying completely flat. The surgical wound is dry and intact. What is the most likely etiology of her symptoms?

. Postoperative meningitis
. Inadvertent dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak
. Epidural hematoma
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Medication-induced migraine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inadvertent dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak


Explanation

Postural headaches that worsen upon standing and improve when supine are the hallmark of intracranial hypotension, most commonly due to a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from an incidental dural tear during spinal surgery.

Question 6783

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with suspected diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) is evaluated in the clinic. Which of the following radiographic criteria is essential for the formal diagnosis of DISH (Resnick and Niwayama criteria)?

. Sacroiliac joint fusion and facet ankylosis
. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies
. Syndesmophyte formation with 'bamboo spine' appearance
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)
. Severe disc space narrowing and endplate sclerosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies


Explanation

The diagnostic criteria for DISH established by Resnick and Niwayama include: 1) flowing ossification of the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies; 2) preservation of intervertebral disc height; 3) absence of apophyseal (facet) joint ankylosis and sacroiliac joint erosion/fusion.

Question 6784

Topic: 6. Spine

Which physical examination test is most specific for evaluating the presence of cervical radiculopathy?

. Spurling test
. Hoffmann sign
. Lhermitte sign
. Babinski reflex
. Tinel sign at the elbow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spurling test


Explanation

The Spurling test (neck extension, lateral bending to the affected side, and axial compression) is highly specific for diagnosing cervical radiculopathy. It reproduces the radicular symptoms by narrowing the neural foramen.

Question 6785

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 45-year-old female undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6. During the immediate postoperative period in the recovery room, she develops a rapidly expanding anterior neck mass, respiratory distress, and stridor. What is the most critical and immediate step in her management?

. Administer intravenous dexamethasone
. Perform an emergent bedside cricothyroidotomy
. Immediate bedside opening of the incision to evacuate the hematoma
. Order an urgent portable CT scan of the neck
. Prepare for re-intubation in the operating room

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate bedside opening of the incision to evacuate the hematoma


Explanation

The patient is experiencing a postoperative prevertebral hematoma causing airway compromise. The standard of care is immediate bedside opening of the surgical incision (including superficial and deep fascial layers) to evacuate the hematoma and relieve pressure, followed by securing the airway and returning to the OR.

Question 6786

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of a solid instrumented lumbar fusion from L2 to the sacrum. How does this patient's prior spinal fusion alter the normal spinopelvic biomechanics during the transition from a standing to a sitting position, and what compensatory intraoperative adjustment in acetabular component positioning should the surgeon consider?

. Her pelvis will excessively retrovert; the surgeon should place the cup in less anteversion.
. Her pelvis will excessively antevert; the surgeon should place the cup in less inclination.
. Her pelvis is rigid and will fail to retrovert; the surgeon should place the cup in greater anteversion.
. Her pelvis is rigid and will fail to antevert; the surgeon should place the cup in greater retroversion.
. Her spinopelvic mechanics are unaffected because the hips compensate entirely; standard cup positioning is indicated.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Her pelvis will excessively retrovert; the surgeon should place the cup in less anteversion.


Explanation

Patients with a stiff or fused lumbar spine lack the normal ability to retrovert their pelvis when transitioning from standing to sitting. In a normal spine, sitting causes posterior pelvic tilt (retroversion), which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the anterior acetabulum to accommodate the flexed femur. A fused spine prevents this, leading to anterior bony impingement and a high risk of posterior dislocation when sitting. To compensate, the surgeon should consider placing the acetabular component in slightly more anteversion and inclination to provide stability.

Question 6787

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old female presents with lower back pain and neurogenic claudication. Radiographs reveal a grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. At which spinal level is this condition most commonly found, and what anatomical variation is most heavily implicated in its pathogenesis?

. L3-L4; coronal orientation of the facet joints
. L4-L5; sagittal orientation of the facet joints
. L5-S1; coronal orientation of the facet joints
. L4-L5; isthmic pars interarticularis defect
. L5-S1; hypoplastic articular processes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5; sagittal orientation of the facet joints


Explanation

Degenerative spondylolisthesis occurs most frequently at the L4-L5 level. The primary anatomic predisposing factor is an abnormally sagittal orientation of the facet joints at this level. Normally, coronally oriented facets resist anterior shear forces. When the facets are more sagittally aligned, they fail to resist these shear forces, leading to anterior subluxation as the disc degenerates.

Question 6788

Topic: 6. Spine

A 52-year-old man presents with acute onset, severe right leg pain radiating down the anterior thigh to the medial aspect of his lower leg. Physical exam reveals weakness in knee extension and a diminished right patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a paracentral disc herniation typically affects the traversing nerve root (e.g., L4-L5 paracentral herniation compresses the L5 root). However, a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation impinges the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, a far lateral L4-L5 disc herniation compresses the exiting L4 nerve root. Symptoms of an L4 radiculopathy include pain radiating to the anterior thigh and medial leg, weakness of the quadriceps (knee extension), and a decreased patellar reflex.

Question 6789

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male presents with deteriorating fine motor skills in his hands and broad-based gait. Examination reveals hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and a positive Hoffmann's sign. Striking the brachioradialis tendon yields a diminished brachioradialis reflex but brisk, involuntary flexion of the ipsilateral fingers. What is this specific physical finding called, and what level of pathology does it indicate?

. Babinski sign; upper motor neuron lesion above C4
. Lhermitte's sign; demyelinating lesion of the cervical cord
. Inverted radial reflex; spinal cord compression at the C5-C6 level
. Wartenberg's sign; ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow
. Clonus; generalized upper motor neuron lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted radial reflex; spinal cord compression at the C5-C6 level


Explanation

The finding described is the 'inverted radial reflex'. Tapping the brachioradialis tendon (innervated by C5-C6) normally elicits elbow flexion. In an inverted reflex, elbow flexion is absent or diminished (due to a lower motor neuron lesion at C5-C6), but the stimulus produces brisk flexion of the fingers (due to hyperreflexia of the C8-T1 levels caused by upper motor neuron compression at the C5-C6 level). It is classic for cervical spondylotic myelopathy localizing to C5-C6.

Question 6790

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall from a standing height. He reports severe, new-onset lower neck pain. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear heavily ossified but no obvious fracture is visualized. Neurologic examination is completely normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge the patient with a soft cervical collar and NSAIDs.
. Prescribe physical therapy for a cervical sprain.
. Obtain an immediate CT scan of the cervical spine.
. Perform a dynamic flexion-extension radiograph series.
. Schedule an outpatient MRI within the next 4 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain an immediate CT scan of the cervical spine.


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines that act like long bones. They are exquisitely susceptible to highly unstable fractures even from trivial trauma. Fractures are frequently missed on plain radiographs due to altered anatomy, ossification, and the lower cervical/cervicothoracic junction being obscured by the shoulders. Any patient with AS presenting with new neck or back pain after a fall MUST undergo a CT scan of the spine to rule out a fracture.

Question 6791

Topic: 6. Spine

A 74-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock and calf pain that worsens with walking and is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart.

He undergoes a stationary bicycle test, during which he pedals continuously for 20 minutes while leaning forward without experiencing leg pain. What anatomical mechanism explains the relief of his symptoms during lumbar flexion?

. Lumbar flexion increases the tension on the traversing nerve roots, preventing nerve ischemia.
. Lumbar flexion unbuckles the ligamentum flavum, thereby increasing the cross-sectional area of the central spinal canal.
. Lumbar flexion causes the posterior annulus fibrosus to bulge further into the canal, relieving foraminal pressure.
. Lumbar flexion increases the venous pooling in the lower extremities, differentiating it from vascular claudication.
. Lumbar flexion completely reduces any coexisting degenerative spondylolisthesis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lumbar flexion unbuckles the ligamentum flavum, thereby increasing the cross-sectional area of the central spinal canal.


Explanation

The clinical picture describes neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. The hallmark of neurogenic claudication is that symptoms are exacerbated by lumbar extension and relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., shopping cart sign, riding a bicycle). Anatomically, lumbar flexion unfolds and stretches the ligamentum flavum (which buckles into the canal during extension) and opens the neural foramina. This acutely increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and foramina, relieving compression on the cauda equina and nerve roots.

Question 6792

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On post-operative day 1, he demonstrates a new, isolated weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but sensation is fully intact. Which of the following is the most widely accepted etiology for this complication?

. Direct intraoperative transection of the exiting nerve root
. Spinal cord ischemia due to prolonged intraoperative hypoperfusion
. Posterior shifting of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve root
. Chemical radiculitis secondary to the use of local hemostatic agents

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior shifting of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve root


Explanation

C5 palsy is a well-documented complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior approaches. It is most commonly attributed to the posterior drift of the spinal cord after decompression, which stretches and tethers the short C5 nerve root.

Question 6793

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man undergoes an L4-L5 posterior decompression and fusion for severe spinal stenosis. Postoperatively, he develops a new foot drop and numbness over the dorsal web space between the first and second toes. Which nerve root is most likely injured, and what is the primary muscle affected?

. L4 / Tibialis anterior
. L5 / Extensor hallucis longus
. S1 / Peroneus longus
. L5 / Tibialis posterior
. S1 / Gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 / Extensor hallucis longus


Explanation

The L5 nerve root supplies the extensor hallucis longus, which is critical for great toe extension, and provides sensation to the first dorsal web space. Iatrogenic injury to the L5 root during L4-L5 surgery can present as a foot drop and these specific sensory deficits.

Question 6794

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but no new sensory changes or long-tract signs. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury
. Epidural hematoma
. C5 nerve root palsy
. Inadequate foraminal decompression
. Vertebral artery injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 nerve root palsy


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a known complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior laminectomy, due to posterior cord drift causing tethering of the C5 nerve root. It typically presents as deltoid and biceps weakness without sensory loss or myelopathy.

Question 6795

Topic: 6. Spine

When calculating the pelvic incidence (PI) in a patient with adult spinal deformity, which two anatomical landmarks are utilized to form the angle?

. Center of the femoral heads and the anterior aspect of the S1 endplate
. Center of the femoral heads and the center of the S1 endplate
. Posterior superior iliac spine and the center of the S1 endplate
. Anterior superior iliac spine and the center of the S1 endplate
. Center of the femoral heads and the L5 inferior endplate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Center of the femoral heads and the center of the S1 endplate


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the angle between a line perpendicular to the sacral plate at its midpoint and a line connecting this point to the axis of the femoral heads. It is crucial for planning sagittal balance correction.

Question 6796

Topic: 6. Spine

A 54-year-old diabetic male presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals an anterior epidural abscess at L2-L3 with extensive vertebral body destruction and kyphosis. He is unable to move his legs against gravity. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Posterior laminectomy alone
. CT-guided needle aspiration
. Anterior corpectomy, strut grafting, and stabilization
. Intravenous antibiotics without surgery
. Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy, strut grafting, and stabilization


Explanation

In the setting of an anterior epidural abscess with significant bony destruction and progressive neurologic deficit, an anterior corpectomy provides direct decompression and allows for strut grafting to restore anterior column stability. Posterior laminectomy alone is contraindicated as it further destabilizes the spine.

Question 6797

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer presents with severe, mechanical back pain. Which of the following parameters is evaluated in the Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) to determine her need for surgical stabilization?

. Patient's life expectancy
. Primary tumor histology
. Presence of posterolateral spinal element involvement
. Number of visceral metastases
. Responsiveness to targeted radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of posterolateral spinal element involvement


Explanation

The SINS score assesses spinal instability in neoplastic disease based on six criteria: location, pain, bone lesion type, radiographic spinal alignment, vertebral body collapse, and posterolateral spinal element involvement. Tumor histology and life expectancy are used in other scores like Tokuhashi or Tomita, not SINS.

Question 6798

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis falls from a standing height. He complains of severe neck pain but his neurological examination is normal. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge home with a soft cervical collar
. Perform a dynamic flexion-extension cervical spine radiograph
. Obtain an MRI or CT scan of the entire cervical spine
. Prescribe NSAIDs and outpatient physical therapy
. Perform a diagnostic facet block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain an MRI or CT scan of the entire cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly brittle, rigid spines that are extremely susceptible to fractures even from low-energy trauma. Normal plain radiographs are insufficient to rule out a fracture; advanced imaging (CT or MRI) is mandatory.

Question 6799

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female presents with neurogenic claudication and an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. According to the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT), which of the following is true regarding her treatment options?

. Surgery shows no significant difference in pain relief compared to non-operative treatment at 4 years
. Surgery provides significantly better outcomes in pain and function at 4 years
. Non-operative treatment is superior for long-term functional status
. Decompression alone is superior to decompression and fusion
. Epidural steroid injections are equally efficacious to surgery at 2 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgery provides significantly better outcomes in pain and function at 4 years


Explanation

The SPORT trial demonstrated that for degenerative spondylolisthesis, surgical treatment (decompression and fusion) maintains a significant advantage over non-operative treatment in pain relief and functional improvement at the 4-year follow-up.

Question 6800

Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old man presents with acute onset of saddle anesthesia, bilateral sciatica, and urinary retention with a post-void residual volume >500 mL. An MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 herniated nucleus pulposus. Current literature suggests optimal clinical and functional outcomes are achieved if surgical decompression is performed within what maximum timeframe?
. 6 hours
. 12 hours
. 48 hours
. 72 hours
. 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Literature generally supports that decompression performed within 48 hours of symptom onset yields significantly better outcomes for bladder and motor function recovery.