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Question 6341

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents with neck pain radiating down his right arm, associated with weakness in elbow extension and wrist flexion, and a diminished triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a C7 radiculopathy. The C7 nerve root supplies the triceps (elbow extension), wrist flexors, and finger extensors. It also provides sensation to the middle finger and is tested by the triceps reflex. C5 controls the deltoid and biceps reflex. C6 controls wrist extension and the brachioradialis reflex. C8 controls finger flexion.

Question 6342

Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old man with advanced cervical spondylosis sustains a hyperextension injury to his neck during a fall. He presents to the ED with profound motor weakness in his upper extremities but is able to move his lower extremities with near-normal strength. He has variable sensory loss. Which spinal cord syndrome does this represent, and which region of the cord is primarily affected?
. Anterior cord syndrome; anterior horn cells
. Brown-Sรฉquard syndrome; lateral corticospinal tract
. Central cord syndrome; central gray matter and medial corticospinal tracts
. Posterior cord syndrome; dorsal columns
. Conus medullaris syndrome; lumbar nerve roots

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome; central gray matter and medial corticospinal tracts


Explanation

This patient has Central Cord Syndrome, which typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a patient with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. The central region of the spinal cord is bruised, affecting the centrally located fibers of the corticospinal tract (which supply the upper extremities) more severely than the peripherally located fibers (which supply the lower extremities).

Question 6343

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old male is evaluated in the trauma bay following a fall from a 20-foot scaffold. He is hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg), bradycardic (HR 55 bpm), and has warm, well-perfused extremities. He lacks motor and sensory function below the umbilicus. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism for his hemodynamic instability?

. Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
. Acute hypovolemia from occult hemorrhage
. Parasympathetic denervation of the heart
. Cardiac tamponade
. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of sympathetic vascular tone


Explanation

The patient is in neurogenic shock, characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities due to a loss of sympathetic outflow following acute spinal cord injury. This loss of vascular tone causes systemic vasodilation and venous pooling. Resuscitation requires judicious volume expansion followed by vasopressors.

Question 6344

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old female presents with severe neck pain radiating down her right arm. Neurological examination reveals a diminished brachioradialis reflex, weakness in wrist extension, and decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of the thumb and index finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5


Explanation

Compression of the C6 nerve root (typically from a C5-C6 disc herniation) classically presents with weakness in wrist extension and elbow flexion, a diminished brachioradialis reflex, and sensory deficits in the thumb and index finger.

Question 6345

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe low back pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and urinary retention following a heavy lifting event. Perianal numbness is noted on exam. Which of the following is the most critical next step in management?

. Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
. Urgent lumbar epidural steroid injection
. Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine followed by surgical decompression
. Initiation of physical therapy and conservative management
. Electromyography (EMG) of the lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone


Explanation

The patient presents with classic signs of cauda equina syndrome. This is an absolute orthopedic emergency requiring urgent MRI to confirm the diagnosis, followed by emergent surgical decompression to prevent irreversible neurological deficits.

Question 6346

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male presents with deteriorating handwriting, difficulty buttoning his shirt, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cervical radiculopathy
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
. Syringomyelia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical radiculopathy


Explanation

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy classically presents with upper extremity dexterity issues, gait instability, and upper motor neuron signs (Hoffman's, hyperreflexia). It is the most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction in the elderly.

Question 6347

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention with overflow incontinence. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 disc herniation compressing the cauda equina. What is the most critical factor in maximizing the likelihood of neurological recovery?

. Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
. Urgent surgical decompression within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset
. Strict bed rest and observation for 24 hours
. Lumbar epidural steroid injection
. Administration of hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is an absolute surgical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Urgent decompression, ideally within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset, is critical to maximize the potential for full neurological recovery, particularly of bowel and bladder function.

Question 6348

Topic: 6. Spine

Figure below depicts the radiograph obtained from a 30-year-old woman who began having more right

than left hip pain during a recent pregnancy. Physical examination reveals increased range of motion with positive flexion abduction and external rotation and flexion adduction and internal rotation as well as pain with external logroll. Assessment of Figure below reveals

. classic dysplasia with volume deficient acetabula.
. acetabular retroversion with positive crossover signs and ischial spine signs.
. no substantial dysplasia, with normal acetabular volume and anteversion.
. inadequate radiographic evidence to assess for hip dysplasia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. classic dysplasia with volume deficient acetabula.


Explanation

Studies have demonstrated that pelvic inclination can dramatically affect the interpretation of radiographs in the dysplastic hip, with 9ยฐ of increased pelvic inclination leading to the presence of crossover signs and posterior wall signs. A distance of 30 mm to 50 mm from the sacrococcygeal junction to the pubis is often used to assess the adequacy of pelvic inclination on radiographs, although Siebenrock and associates determined the mean difference to be 32 mm in men and 47 mm in women. In this patient, the pelvic inclination is dramatically increased, leading to overestimation of acetabular retroversion.

Question 6349

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with progressive hand clumsiness, gait instability, and bilateral lower extremity hyperreflexia. Physical examination reveals a positive inverted brachioradialis reflex (striking the brachioradialis tendon produces paradoxical finger flexion rather than elbow flexion). What spinal cord level is most likely compressed to produce this highly specific finding?

. C3-C4
. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3-C4


Explanation

The inverted brachioradialis reflex is a classic and highly specific upper motor neuron (UMN) sign for cervical myelopathy localized to the C5-C6 level. The brachioradialis reflex is mediated by the C6 nerve root. A compressive lesion at C5-C6 interrupts the local reflex arc at C6 (causing loss of the normal lower motor neuron reflex: elbow flexion/supination), but simultaneously compresses the descending corticospinal tracts. This UMN disinhibition allows the stimulus to spread to the C8 nerve root, resulting in an abnormal exaggerated response of finger flexion. Therefore, it indicates both an LMN lesion at C6 and an UMN lesion below that level.

Question 6350

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old competitive gymnast presents with persistent lower back pain that radiates into her bilateral buttocks. Radiographs reveal a bilateral pars interarticularis defect at L5-S1 with 60% anterior translation of the L5 vertebral body upon the sacrum. According to the Meyerding classification, what grade is this slip, and what is the current accepted standard definitive surgical management if conservative treatment has failed?
. Grade II; direct pars interarticularis repair (e.g., Buck's or Scott wiring)
. Grade III; L5-S1 in situ posterolateral or interbody fusion with instrumentation
. Grade III; L4-S1 long-segment posterolateral fusion without decompression
. Grade IV; aggressive L5-S1 anatomic reduction and circumferential fusion
. Grade IV; L5 corpectomy with strut grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade III; L5-S1 in situ posterolateral or interbody fusion with instrumentation


Explanation

The Meyerding classification grades spondylolisthesis based on the percentage of anterior translation: Grade I (0-25%), Grade II (26-50%), Grade III (51-75%), Grade IV (76-100%), and Grade V (spondyloptosis, >100%). A 60% slip is a Grade III (High-Grade) isthmic spondylolisthesis. While low-grade slips in young athletes can sometimes be treated with direct pars repair if symptomatic despite conservative care, high-grade slips (>50%) have a much higher risk of progression, pseudoarthrosis, and neurologic deficit. The accepted standard of care for a symptomatic high-grade slip is L5-S1 fusion (in situ or with partial reduction depending on the surgeon and sagittal balance parameters), frequently incorporating interbody support and decompression if radicular symptoms are present.

Question 6351

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male sustains an L1 burst fracture in a motor vehicle collision. He presents with normal neurologic status (ASIA E). A subsequent MRI confirms that the posterior ligamentous complex is completely intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is his score and the appropriate treatment recommendation?

. Score 1, conservative management
. Score 2, conservative management
. Score 4, operative management
. Score 5, operative management
. Score 7, operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 1, conservative management


Explanation

The TLICS score assigns points based on morphology, neurological status, and PLC integrity. Morphology: Burst = 2 points. Neurological status: Intact = 0 points. PLC: Intact = 0 points. Total score = 2. A score of 3 or less is typically treated non-operatively with bracing or observation.

Question 6352

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating fine motor skills, dropping objects, and an unsteady, broad-based gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. On preoperative MRI, which of the following findings is the most sensitive indicator of a poor potential for neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?

. T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord
. T2 hyperintensity in the spinal cord
. Complete obliteration of the CSF space
. Multi-level disc osteophyte complexes
. Modic type 1 endplate changes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord


Explanation

T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord represents myelomalacia, cystic necrosis, or atrophy, which correlates strongly with irreversible damage and poor postoperative recovery. T2 hyperintensity represents edema and is often reversible.

Question 6353

Topic: 6. Spine

In a patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome following a traumatic spine injury, which of the following is the most reliable clinical indicator that spinal shock has completely resolved?

. Return of deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
. Return of voluntary anal sphincter tone
. Return of the bulbocavernosus reflex
. Normalization of bladder post-void residual volumes
. Resolution of saddle anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Return of deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities


Explanation

The return of the bulbocavernosus reflex signifies the end of the spinal shock phase. If neurologic deficits persist after its return, it confirms a complete spinal cord or cauda equina injury rather than transient shock.

Question 6354

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man presents with progressive hand clumsiness and a broad-based gait. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign. Which of the following cervical spine MRI findings would most strongly correlate with a poor potential for neurologic recovery postoperatively?

. Loss of cervical lordosis
. Multilevel disc desiccation
. High T2 signal intensity with corresponding low T1 signal intensity in the cord
. Modic Type 1 changes in the vertebral bodies
. Mild central canal stenosis without cord compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of cervical lordosis


Explanation

A hyperintense signal on T2-weighted images paired with a hypointense signal on T1-weighted images indicates myelomalacia (cystic necrosis or gliosis) of the spinal cord. This finding portends a poorer prognosis for neurologic recovery in cervical myelopathy.

Question 6355

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old man sustains a C5 burst fracture with a complete spinal cord injury. In the trauma bay, his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg and his heart rate is 50 bpm. His extremities are warm. Which of the following best explains this physiologic state?

. Loss of sympathetic tone to the peripheral vasculature and heart
. Hypovolemia resulting from massive internal hemorrhage
. Parasympathetic withdrawal due to vagus nerve injury
. Acute adrenal insufficiency secondary to trauma
. Cardiac tamponade compressing the right ventricle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of sympathetic tone to the peripheral vasculature and heart


Explanation

The patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, typical of cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injuries. It is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia due to the disruption of descending sympathetic pathways, leading to unopposed parasympathetic tone (vagal tone) and a loss of vasomotor tone (resulting in warm, flushed extremities).

Question 6356

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis and neck pain, which of the following is the most reliable radiographic predictor of impending neurologic deficit requiring surgical stabilization?

. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm
. Posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI) of 13 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination with the dens 2 mm above McGregor's line
. C2-C3 facet arthrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (PADI) directly correlates with the Space Available for the Cord (SAC). A PADI of less than 14 mm is the most reliable predictor of neurologic deficit in rheumatoid cervical instability and is an absolute indication for surgical stabilization.

Question 6357

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which specific portion of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) complex of the elbow serves as the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion, and what is its anatomic ulnar insertion?

. Posterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.
. Anterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.
. Transverse ligament; inserting on the tip of the coronoid process.
. Anterior bundle; inserting on the lateral aspect of the olecranon.
. Posterior bundle; inserting on the supinator crest.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial (ulnar) collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow. It originates on the anterior inferior surface of the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the anteromedial coronoid process.

Question 6358

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old child with a highly restricted diet presents with petechiae, gingival bleeding, and lower extremity pain. Radiographs reveal a 'white line' at the metaphysis (Frankel's line). The underlying pathogenesis involves a deficiency in the function of which of the following enzymes?

. Lysyl oxidase
. Prolyl hydroxylase
. Collagenase
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Glucosyltransferase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prolyl hydroxylase


Explanation

The child has scurvy due to Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is an essential cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, which are required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in procollagen. This hydroxylation is critical for the stable triple-helix formation of collagen. Lysyl oxidase (which requires copper) is involved in collagen cross-linking and is deficient in Menkes disease.

Question 6359

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the established White and Panjabi criteria, clinical instability of the lower cervical spine on a lateral flexion-extension radiograph is defined by which of the following objective thresholds?

. Sagittal translation > 1.5 mm or > 5 degrees of relative angulation
. Sagittal translation > 3.5 mm or > 11 degrees of relative angulation
. Sagittal translation > 5.5 mm or > 15 degrees of relative angulation
. Posterior element widening > 2 mm
. Facet joint subluxation > 25%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sagittal translation > 3.5 mm or > 11 degrees of relative angulation


Explanation

The White and Panjabi criteria define clinical instability of the adult lower cervical spine as a sagittal translation of > 3.5 mm (or > 20% of the vertebral body width) or an angular displacement of > 11 degrees greater than the adjacent levels on lateral dynamic radiographs.

Question 6360

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male is involved in a severe motor vehicle accident and sustains a Levine-Edwards Type II traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture), demonstrating significant translation and angulation. What is the classic mechanism of injury for this specific fracture subtype?

. Severe axial compression alone
. Hyperextension followed by severe flexion and axial compression
. Pure flexion and distraction
. Lateral bending with rotational shear
. Hyperextension and axial loading with an intact C2-C3 disc

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension followed by severe flexion and axial compression


Explanation

Levine-Edwards classification of Hangman's fractures: Type I is caused by hyperextension/axial loading. Type II is caused by initial hyperextension-loading (fracturing the pars) followed by severe rebound flexion and axial compression, tearing the C2-C3 disc and posterior longitudinal ligament, leading to translation. Type IIA is flexion-distraction.