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Question 6201

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive hand clumsiness and a broad-based gait. Cervical spine radiographs demonstrate atlantoaxial instability. What is the most critical radiographic parameter used to assess her risk of impending permanent neurological deterioration?

. Atlanto-Dental Interval (ADI) > 5 mm
. Posterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (PADI) < 14 mm
. Ranawat criteria class I
. Chamberlain line violation
. Cervical lordosis > 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlanto-Dental Interval (ADI) > 5 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery. A PADI of less than 14 mm indicates a high risk for neurologic compromise and warrants surgical intervention.

Question 6202

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man with cervical spondylosis suffers a hyperextension injury. He presents with 2/5 strength in his bilateral upper extremities and 4/5 strength in his lower extremities. He has variable sensory loss. Which specific spinal tract injury is responsible for this classic presentation?

. Anterior spinothalamic tract
. Corticospinal tract
. Dorsal columns
. Spinocerebellar tract
. Lateral spinothalamic tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior spinothalamic tract


Explanation

This is Central Cord Syndrome, which disproportionately affects the upper extremities due to injury to the central portion of the spinal cord. In the corticospinal tract, the cervical motor fibers are located more medially than the lumbosacral fibers.

Question 6203

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man develops acute, severe left anterior thigh pain and new-onset weakness in left knee extension. MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a massive far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level on the left. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L3-L4 far lateral disc herniation compresses the exiting L3 nerve root.

Question 6204

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old diver impacts the bottom of a pool, sustaining an axial load injury. An open-mouth odontoid radiograph demonstrates a Jefferson fracture. According to Spence's rule, a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 greater than what measurement implies incompetence of the transverse alar ligament?

. > 3.0 mm
. > 5.0 mm
. > 6.9 mm
. > 9.0 mm
. > 11.0 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 3.0 mm


Explanation

Spence's rule states that a combined lateral mass displacement of C1 on C2 greater than 6.9 mm on an open-mouth odontoid view is highly suggestive of a ruptured transverse ligament, rendering the fracture highly unstable.

Question 6205

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old woman presents with saddle anesthesia, bilateral sciatica, and acute urinary retention with a post-void residual volume of 450 mL. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 central disc extrusion. What is the generally accepted optimal time window to perform decompression to maximize the chance of urologic recovery?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 12 hours
. Within 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 6 hours


Explanation

Cauda Equina Syndrome is a surgical emergency. The literature strongly supports that surgical decompression performed within 48 hours provides the best clinical outcomes for the recovery of bladder and bowel function.

Question 6206

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In an adult patient presenting with an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis and unilateral radicular leg pain, which nerve root is most commonly compressed, and what is the primary anatomical site of this compression?

. L4 traversing root in the central canal
. L5 traversing root in the lateral recess
. L5 exiting root in the neural foramen
. S1 traversing root in the lateral recess
. S1 exiting root in the neural foramen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 traversing root in the central canal


Explanation

In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the L5 exiting nerve root is most commonly compressed. The compression typically occurs in the neural foramen due to the pars interarticularis pseudarthrosis and hypertrophic fibrocartilage.

Question 6207

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old patient undergoes a posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion from C3 to C6 for severe cervical myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound new-onset weakness in his bilateral deltoids and biceps, with preserved strength elsewhere. Sensation is intact. What is the most likely etiology?

. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury
. Epidural hematoma
. C5 nerve root palsy
. Inadequate decompression of the central canal
. Adjacent segment disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury


Explanation

C5 palsy is a well-known complication following posterior cervical decompression, presenting typically as deltoid and biceps weakness. It is thought to be caused by posterior shift of the spinal cord leading to traction on the short, horizontally oriented C5 nerve roots.

Question 6208

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 30-year-old female sustains a Levine-Edwards Type IIa Hangman's fracture. Radiographs demonstrate an angulated C2 pars fracture with minimal translation. What treatment modality is strictly contraindicated in this specific injury pattern?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization in compression
. Axial cervical traction
. C2-C3 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Posterior C1-C3 fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

A Type IIa Hangman's fracture is caused by flexion-distraction and features severe angulation with minimal translation. Axial traction is strictly contraindicated as it can cause over-distraction and severe neurologic injury.

Question 6209

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following congenital spinal anomalies carries the highest risk of rapid curve progression and invariably requires early surgical intervention?

. Block vertebra
. Single fully segmented hemivertebra
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra
. Wedge vertebra
. Bilateral unsegmented bar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Block vertebra


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra at the same level creates a severe growth imbalance. This specific anomaly has the highest risk of rapid, unrelenting curve progression and mandates early surgical arthrodesis.

Question 6210

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a ground-level fall. Neurologic exam is intact. CT scan reveals a transverse fracture through the C5-C6 disc space. What is the most dreaded immediate complication that must be monitored for in this patient?

. Vertebral artery dissection
. Epidural hematoma
. Syringomyelia
. Meningitis
. Esophageal rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertebral artery dissection


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis who sustain a fracture are at very high risk for epidural hematoma due to the highly vascular nature of the fracture and altered epidural space. They also have high rates of secondary neurologic deterioration due to instability.

Question 6211

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI confirms the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is completely intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the best initial management?

. Urgent posterior spinal instrumented fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and stabilization
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
. Strict bed rest for 8 weeks
. Laminectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent posterior spinal instrumented fusion


Explanation

The TLICS score for this patient is 2 (Morphology: Burst = 2, Neuro: Intact = 0, PLC: Intact = 0). A score of 3 or less indicates non-operative management, making a TLSO brace the most appropriate choice.

Question 6212

Topic: 6. Spine

During a complex anterior thoracolumbar reconstruction, the surgeon must be mindful of the Artery of Adamkiewicz. Which of the following best describes the typical origin and function of this critical vessel?

. It originates on the left side between T8 and L1 and supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord
. It originates on the right side between T4 and T8 and supplies the posterior columns of the spinal cord
. It originates from the vertebral artery and supplies the cervical spinal cord
. It originates on the left side between L2 and L4 and supplies the cauda equina
. It originates bilaterally at every thoracic level to supply the entire dorsal horn

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It originates on the left side between T8 and L1 and supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord


Explanation

The Artery of Adamkiewicz (great anterior radiculomedullary artery) typically arises on the left side between T8 and L1. It is the major blood supply to the anterior spinal artery in the lower thoracic and lumbar spine.

Question 6213

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old male requires the placement of a halo vest for a complex upper cervical spine injury.

Where is the correct anatomical "safe zone" for the placement of the anterior halo pins in an adult?

. Medial third of the eyebrow, directly over the frontal sinus
. Lateral third of the eyebrow, 1 cm superior to the orbital rim
. Directly into the temporalis muscle over the temporal fossa
. 2 cm posterior to the hairline in the mid-pupillary line
. 1 cm medial to the supraorbital notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial third of the eyebrow, directly over the frontal sinus


Explanation

The anterior pins for a halo vest should be placed in the safe zone: 1 cm superior to the lateral third of the eyebrow (orbital rim). This avoids the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves medially, and the temporalis muscle laterally.

Question 6214

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe lower back pain and right leg pain. An MRI reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed, and what clinical finding would be expected?

. L4 root; weakness in ankle dorsiflexion
. L5 root; weakness in great toe extension
. S1 root; absent Achilles reflex
. L3 root; weakness in hip flexion
. L4 root; weakness in knee extension and a diminished patellar reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 root; weakness in ankle dorsiflexion


Explanation

A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, unlike paracentral herniations which compress the traversing L5 root. L4 compression classically presents with quadriceps weakness and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 6215

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old male presents with radiating neck pain into his left arm. Physical examination demonstrates weakness in wrist flexion, finger extension, and triceps extension, along with an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5


Explanation

The C7 nerve root provides innervation to the triceps, wrist flexors, and finger extensors. Compression at the C6-C7 level results in a C7 radiculopathy, characterized by an absent or diminished triceps reflex.

Question 6216

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In the surgical planning for an adult patient with severe sagittal imbalance, achieving proper spinopelvic parameters is critical to postoperative clinical success. What is the universally accepted target for the mismatch between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL)?

. PI-LL mismatch < 10 degrees
. PI-LL mismatch between 15 and 25 degrees
. PI-LL mismatch > 30 degrees
. LL should be exactly twice the PI
. PI should be less than 30 degrees regardless of LL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI-LL mismatch < 10 degrees


Explanation

In adult spinal deformity correction, restoring global sagittal balance correlates with improved clinical outcomes. The ideal postoperative target is a Pelvic Incidence to Lumbar Lordosis (PI-LL) mismatch of less than 10 degrees.

Question 6217

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man with pre-existing cervical spondylosis sustains a hyperextension injury to his neck. He presents with severe motor weakness in his hands and arms, but is able to move his legs with only mild weakness. What is the typical long-term prognosis for this specific spinal cord injury syndrome?

. Full recovery of fine motor skills in the hands is highly likely
. Most patients will regain the ability to ambulate, but fine motor recovery in the upper extremities is typically poor
. Bowel and bladder function rarely recover
. The syndrome is rapidly fatal without emergent anterior cervical discectomy
. Lower extremity motor function will progressively deteriorate over 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full recovery of fine motor skills in the hands is highly likely


Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically presents with disproportionate upper extremity weakness. Prognosis for ambulation is generally good (over 50%), but recovery of fine motor function in the hands remains poor.

Question 6218

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with acute, severe, localized back pain and a low-grade fever. He has a history of recent intravenous catheter placement. Neurological examination is currently normal. What is the most common causative organism if an MRI confirms a spinal epidural abscess?

. Escherichia coli
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Escherichia coli


Explanation

The classic triad of a spinal epidural abscess is back pain, fever, and neurologic deficit, though localized back pain is often the earliest sign. Staphylococcus aureus is by far the most common causative organism.

Question 6219

Topic: 6. Spine

During the evaluation of a 2-year-old child with congenital scoliosis, various vertebral anomalies are noted on plain radiographs. Which of the following structural anomalies carries the highest risk for rapid and severe curve progression?

. A fully segmented hemivertebra
. A block vertebra
. A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra
. A butterfly vertebra
. A wedge vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A fully segmented hemivertebra


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra creates a massive growth mismatch (growth on one side, tethered on the other), leading to the highest risk of rapid curve progression requiring early surgical intervention.

Question 6220

Topic: 6. Spine

A 24-year-old male arrives at the trauma bay after a motorcycle accident with flaccid paralysis below the T4 level, absent reflexes, and hypotension. Which of the following clinical signs definitively indicates the resolution of the temporary physiological state known as spinal shock?

. Return of the bulbocavernosus reflex
. Normalization of systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
. Return of voluntary motor function in the lower extremities
. Absence of paradoxical bradycardia
. Return of deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Return of the bulbocavernosus reflex


Explanation

Spinal shock is a temporary state of areflexia and flaccidity following acute spinal cord injury. Its clinical resolution is strictly defined by the return of the polysynaptic bulbocavernosus reflex, typically within 24 to 48 hours.