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Question 6061

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. He has a history of a solid instrumented lumbar fusion from L2 to the sacrum. How does this spinal pathology affect his spinopelvic biomechanics and subsequent dislocation risk during sitting?

. The pelvis hyper-retroverts, leading to excessive acetabular anteversion and anterior dislocation risk.
. The pelvis is unable to retrovert normally, leaving the acetabulum under-anteverted and increasing posterior dislocation risk.
. The pelvis is unable to antevert normally, leading to excessive acetabular anteversion and posterior dislocation risk.
. The spinopelvic mobility is unaffected, but the center of rotation is lateralized.
. The lumbar spine compensates by increasing lordosis, which increases functional acetabular anteversion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The pelvis is unable to retrovert normally, leaving the acetabulum under-anteverted and increasing posterior dislocation risk.


Explanation

In patients with lumbar fusion to the sacrum, the pelvis becomes stiff and cannot retrovert during sitting. This failure to increase functional acetabular anteversion upon sitting leads to anterior bony impingement and a high risk of posterior dislocation.

Question 6062

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with back pain and a solitary 'punched-out' lytic lesion in his skull. Spine radiographs show a complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana). Biopsy reveals cells with reniform nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm, intermixed with eosinophils. Which marker is diagnostic?

. CD1a
. CD34
. CD99
. SOX9
. SATB2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD1a


Explanation

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) presents with solitary or multiple lytic bone lesions and vertebra plana in children. The neoplastic Langerhans cells are characteristically positive for CD1a, S100, and Langerin (CD207).

Question 6063

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy complains of severe neck pain. Radiographs reveal flattening of the C3 vertebral body (vertebra plana).

Biopsy reveals cells with grooved nuclei resembling coffee beans, mixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy of the neoplastic cells would most likely demonstrate:

. Birbeck granules
. Weibel-Palade bodies
. Reinke crystals
. Asteroid bodies
. Howell-Jolly bodies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Birbeck granules


Explanation

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH) frequently presents as an eosinophilic granuloma causing vertebra plana in children. The characteristic neoplastic Langerhans cells contain "tennis-racket" shaped Birbeck granules on electron microscopy and express CD1a and S100.

Question 6064

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old female sustains a Denis Zone 3 sacral fracture following a fall from height. Which of the following is the most likely neurologic complication associated with this specific injury pattern?

. Isolated foot drop
. Quadriceps weakness
. Saddle anesthesia and sphincter dysfunction
. Loss of patellar reflex
. Meralgia paresthetica

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated foot drop


Explanation

Denis Zone 3 sacral fractures involve the central sacral canal. Because of this central involvement, they carry a high risk of cauda equina syndrome, which frequently presents as saddle anesthesia and bowel or bladder sphincter dysfunction.

Question 6065

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher undergoes an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction. The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Which specific band of the anterior bundle provides the primary restraint during early flexion (0 to 60 degrees)?

. Anterior band
. Posterior band
. Transverse ligament
. Oblique band
. Proximal band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is composed of anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is the primary restraint to valgus stress in early flexion (up to 60 degrees), while the posterior band provides stability in deeper flexion.

Question 6066

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-year-old child presents with diffuse joint pain, bleeding gums, and petechiae. Radiographs show a prominent white line of Frankel at the metaphyses. The underlying defect is a failure of which step in collagen synthesis?

. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminals
. Glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Formation of reducible cross-links by lysyl oxidase
. Assembly of alpha chains into a triple helix

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminals


Explanation

The clinical presentation is consistent with scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency). Vitamin C is an essential cofactor for the enzymes prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, which are responsible for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues during collagen synthesis.

Question 6067

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with a history of a multilevel lumbar spinal fusion (L2-S1) presents for a primary total hip arthroplasty. Because his spine is functionally stiff and fixed in a 'flatback' (decreased lumbar lordosis) posture, his pelvis cannot properly retrovert when transitioning from standing to sitting. How should the surgeon adjust the acetabular component positioning to minimize the risk of posterior dislocation?

. Decrease the acetabular component anteversion
. Increase the acetabular component anteversion
. Increase the acetabular component inclination to 60 degrees
. Decrease the femoral component offset
. Use a zero-degree neutral liner in all cases

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the acetabular component anteversion


Explanation

Normal spinopelvic mechanics involve pelvic retroversion during sitting, which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the anterior femur to prevent anterior impingement and posterior dislocation. A patient with a stiff spine and flatback deformity cannot retrovert their pelvis when sitting. Therefore, to prevent anterior impingement and posterior dislocation in flexion, the surgeon must manually compensate by placing the acetabular component in increased anteversion during the index surgery.

Question 6068

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with severe ankylosing spondylitis and a fused lumbar spine is planned for a primary total hip arthroplasty. How should the surgeon alter the standard acetabular cup positioning to minimize the risk of posterior dislocation?

. Decrease both anteversion and inclination
. Increase acetabular anteversion
. Increase acetabular inclination only
. Decrease acetabular anteversion
. Place the cup in a neutral, 0-degree anteverted position

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease both anteversion and inclination


Explanation

Patients with a stiff lumbar spine fail to increase pelvic tilt during sitting, putting them at high risk for posterior dislocation. To compensate for the lack of dynamic spinopelvic adaptation, the surgeon must increase the acetabular anteversion.

Question 6069

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female presents for a primary total hip arthroplasty. Preoperative radiographs reveal a long spinal fusion from T10 to the pelvis with a significantly decreased sacral slope and a retroverted pelvis. Based on her spinopelvic mechanics, this patient is at the greatest risk for which of the following complications?

. Posterior dislocation while sitting
. Anterior dislocation while standing
. Superior migration of the acetabular component
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior dislocation while sitting


Explanation

A patient with a fused lumbar spine in flatback deformity (retroverted pelvis) cannot dynamically accommodate postural changes. The fixed retroversion increases functional anteversion when standing, placing the patient at a high risk for anterior impingement and subsequent anterior dislocation.

Question 6070

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with back pain and is found to have a severe compression fracture (vertebra plana) of T8 on radiographs. Biopsy of the lesion shows histiocytes with grooved, 'coffee-bean' nuclei, mixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy reveals Birbeck granules. Which marker is most reliably positive on immunohistochemistry?

. CD34
. CD1a
. Desmin
. Cytokeratin
. SMA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD34


Explanation

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) classically presents as vertebra plana in the pediatric spine. The neoplastic Langerhans cells exhibit grooved nuclei, contain Birbeck granules (tennis racket shape on EM), and stain positively for CD1a, S-100, and Langerin (CD207).

Question 6071

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a flattened vertebral body (vertebra plana) at T10. Biopsy reveals a proliferation of mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei mixed with eosinophils. Immunohistochemistry will most likely be positive for which of the following markers?

. CD34 and SMA
. Cytokeratin and EMA
. CD1a and S100
. Desmin and MyoD1
. CD99 and FLI-1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD34 and SMA


Explanation

The clinical presentation of vertebra plana in a child, combined with histology showing cells with grooved ('coffee bean') nuclei and a background of eosinophils, is highly characteristic of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma). The Langerhans cells characteristically express S100, CD1a, and Langerin (CD207).

Question 6072

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with back pain. Radiographs reveal a completely flattened T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana). Needle biopsy demonstrates an infiltrate of eosinophils mixed with prominent histiocytes that have folded, 'coffee-bean' shaped nuclei. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is the most highly specific for the primary pathologic cell in this condition?

. CD68
. S-100
. CD45
. CD207 (Langerin)
. Vimentin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD68


Explanation

The clinical presentation (vertebra plana in a child) and histology (eosinophils and histiocytes with folded nuclei) are classic for Eosinophilic Granuloma (Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis). While the Langerhans cells are positive for S-100 and CD1a, CD207 (Langerin) is highly specific because it directly correlates with the presence of Birbeck granules, the ultrastructural hallmark (tennis-racket shaped organelles) of Langerhans cells.

Question 6073

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with localized back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a 'vertebra plana' in the thoracic spine. Biopsy of the lesion shows a proliferation of cells with distinct nuclear grooves, admixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy identifies tennis-racket shaped organelles. Which immunohistochemical marker will definitively identify the lesional cells?

. CD34
. S-100
. CD1a
. Cytokeratin
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD34


Explanation

The clinical picture and presence of Birbeck granules (tennis-racket organelles) are diagnostic of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH). The pathological Langerhans cells strongly express both S-100 and CD1a, with CD1a being highly specific.

Question 6074

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with severe localized thoracic back pain. Radiographs reveal uniform flattening of the T7 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preserved adjacent disc spaces. Biopsy shows a cellular infiltrate including eosinophils and mononuclear cells with grooved, 'coffee-bean' nuclei. Electron microscopy is most likely to reveal which of the following?

. Weibel-Palade bodies
. Birbeck granules
. Reinke crystals
. Intracytoplasmic mucin vacuoles
. Neurosecretory dense-core granules

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weibel-Palade bodies


Explanation

This patient has Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma), which classically presents with vertebra plana in children. The neoplastic Langerhans cells contain Birbeck granules, which resemble tennis rackets on electron microscopy.

Question 6075

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old boy with achondroplasia presents with clumsiness, increased sleeping, and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his new neurologic findings?

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Atlantoaxial instability
. Foramen magnum stenosis
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Tethered cord syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis


Explanation

Foramen magnum stenosis is a critical and potentially life-threatening complication of achondroplasia. Narrowing at the craniocervical junction can lead to cervicomedullary compression. Symptoms include hyperreflexia, clumsiness, sleep apnea, central respiratory depression, and in severe cases, sudden death. It typically presents in infants or young children and requires prompt neurosurgical decompression.

Question 6076

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old gymnast complains of chronic low back pain exacerbated by extension. Oblique radiographs demonstrate a "Scotty dog with a collar" appearance at L5. A bilateral pars interarticularis defect is confirmed. If conservative management fails, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention for an isolated L5 pars defect without spondylolisthesis in this young athlete?

. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screws
. L4-L5 posterior spinal fusion
. Direct repair of the pars defect (e.g., Buck or Scott wiring technique)
. L5 laminectomy
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) at L5-S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screws


Explanation

The patient has symptomatic spondylolysis (pars interarticularis defect) without spondylolisthesis. In a young, high-level athlete (like a gymnast) who fails extensive conservative management, direct pars repair (using techniques such as Buck's screws, Scott wiring, or Morscher hooks) is indicated. This approach restores the bony continuity of the pars while preserving the motion segment, avoiding the loss of mobility inherent to a spinal fusion.

Question 6077

Topic: 6. Spine

A 9-month-old infant is incidentally noted to have a left-sided thoracic scoliosis measuring 25 degrees. To differentiate between a resolving and a progressive infantile idiopathic scoliosis, the rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at the apical vertebra. An RVAD greater than what value is highly predictive of curve progression?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 30 degrees
. 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 degrees


Explanation

In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, Mehta's Rib-Vertebra Angle Difference (RVAD) is critical for predicting whether a curve will resolve or progress. An RVAD > 20 degrees at the apical vertebra implies a high likelihood of progression (Phase II rib head overlap often accompanies this), warranting aggressive non-operative treatment such as serial elongation-derotation-flexion (EDF) casting.

Question 6078

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old competitive gymnast presents with worsening lower back pain that is exacerbated by leaning backward. Radiographs and subsequent MRI confirm a bilateral pars interarticularis defect at L5 without spondylolisthesis.

This injury (spondylolysis) is primarily the result of repetitive mechanical stress applied during which combination of spinal motions?

. Hyperflexion and lateral bending
. Hyperextension and rotation
. Axial loading and forward flexion
. Distraction and pure axial rotation
. Shear force during forward trunk flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperflexion and lateral bending


Explanation

Spondylolysis (a defect in the pars interarticularis) is a stress fracture most commonly occurring at L5. It is highly prevalent in adolescent athletes who perform repetitive spinal hyperextension and rotation (e.g., gymnasts, fast bowlers in cricket, offensive linemen in football). These motions place massive cyclic shear and compressive forces on the pars, ultimately leading to fatigue failure.

Question 6079

Topic: 6. Spine

A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis. Radiographic evaluation of the spine reveals a unilateral unsegmented bar with a fully segmented hemivertebra at the same level on the contralateral side.

What is the expected natural history of this specific spinal anomaly if left untreated?

. Spontaneous resolution by skeletal maturity
. Slow, benign progression averaging 1-2 degrees per year
. Rapid and relentless progression often exceeding 5-10 degrees per year
. Progression strictly limited to the adolescent growth spurt
. Development of compensatory curves without progression of the primary deformity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spontaneous resolution by skeletal maturity


Explanation

The combination of a unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral fully segmented hemivertebra at the same level is widely recognized as the most severe and rapidly progressive form of congenital scoliosis. Due to the complete tethering of growth on one side (the bar) and excessive growth potential on the convex side (the hemivertebra), this deformity progresses relentlessly (often >5 degrees per year) and requires early surgical intervention (e.g., hemivertebra excision or in situ fusion).

Question 6080

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with chronic lower back pain and notably tight hamstrings. Standing lateral radiographs reveal a 60% anterior slip of L5 on S1. Which type of spondylolisthesis according to the Wiltse classification is most commonly associated with this specific patient demographic and clinical presentation?
. Type I (Dysplastic)
. Type II (Isthmic)
. Type III (Degenerative)
. Type IV (Traumatic)
. Type V (Pathologic)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II (Isthmic)


Explanation

Type II (Isthmic) spondylolisthesis is caused by a defect or stress fracture in the pars interarticularis. It is the most common type of spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents, particularly in athletes who perform repetitive hyperextension activities (e.g., gymnasts, divers, football linemen). Tight hamstrings (causing the Phalen-Dickson sign or a 'waddling' gait) are a classic physical finding in high-grade slips.