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Question 6021

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following morphologic patterns is assigned the highest point value for injury morphology?

. Compression fracture
. Burst fracture
. Translation/Rotation
. Distraction
. Lateral wedge compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distraction


Explanation

According to the TLICS system, distraction injuries receive 4 points for morphology, making them the highest weighted morphologic injury pattern. Translation/rotation receives 3 points, burst receives 2 points, and compression receives 1 point.

Question 6022

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with deteriorating handwriting, difficulty manipulating small objects, and frequent tripping. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and sustained ankle clonus. An MRI confirms severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Which of the following physical examination findings is also most likely to be present?

. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
. A positive Babinski sign
. Fasciculations in the upper extremities
. Flaccid tone in the lower extremities
. Negative Romberg test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A positive Babinski sign


Explanation

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy causes upper motor neuron (UMN) signs below the level of spinal cord compression. A positive Babinski sign is a classic UMN sign. Decreased reflexes, fasciculations, and flaccidity are lower motor neuron signs. The Romberg test is often positive due to dorsal column involvement impairing proprioception.

Question 6023

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with severe lumbar spinal stenosis complains of bilateral neurogenic claudication. He notes significant symptom relief when leaning forward over a shopping cart. What is the primary anatomic explanation for this positional relief?

. Flexion decreases the tension on the sciatic nerve roots.
. Flexion reduces the size of the ligamentum flavum, expanding the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal.
. Flexion transiently increases blood flow through the anterior spinal artery.
. Flexion unloads the facet joints, stopping nociceptive pain signals.
. Flexion causes anterior translation of the disc, pulling it away from the nerve roots.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion reduces the size of the ligamentum flavum, expanding the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal.


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication improves with lumbar flexion (e.g., leaning over a shopping cart, sitting) because flexion tightens the ligamentum flavum, preventing it from buckling into the canal. This increases the cross-sectional area of the central canal and neural foramina, temporarily relieving mechanical compression and ischemia of the cauda equina.

Question 6024

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy with normal intelligence presents with short trunk dwarfism, knock knees, and a barrel chest. Urine analysis shows elevated levels of keratan sulfate. Radiographs of the cervical spine are most likely to demonstrate which of the following abnormalities?

. Atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia
. Congenital fusion of C2-C3 (Klippel-Feil)
. Basilar invagination
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Cervical kyphosis due to absent anterior vertebral bodies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia


Explanation

The clinical presentation and elevated keratan sulfate are characteristic of Morquio syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV). Unlike some other MPS disorders, intelligence is preserved. A critical and potentially lethal orthopedic manifestation of Morquio syndrome is odontoid hypoplasia, leading to atlantoaxial instability and cervical myelopathy.

Question 6025

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male is involved in a severe motor vehicle accident and sustains a burst fracture of T10 with paraplegia. He has flaccid lower extremities, areflexia, and a heart rate of 55 bpm with a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. The resolution of spinal shock in this patient is best indicated clinically by the return of which of the following?

. Deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
. Sympathetic vascular tone and normal heart rate
. The bulbocavernosus reflex
. Voluntary anal sphincter contraction
. Sensation in the perianal area

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The bulbocavernosus reflex


Explanation

Spinal shock is a state of transient physiologic reflex depression of cord function below the level of injury, presenting with flaccid paralysis and areflexia. The end of the spinal shock phase is heralded by the return of the bulbocavernosus reflex (an S2-S4 reflex). Once it returns, a formal ASIA neurologic exam can reliably determine whether the spinal cord injury is complete or incomplete.

Question 6026

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive hand clumsiness and hyperreflexia. Cervical radiographs reveal atlantoaxial subluxation. Which of the following radiographic parameters is the most critical indicator of impending neurologic deterioration and the need for surgical stabilization?

. Anterior atlantodens interval (ADI) > 3 mm
. Posterior atlantodens interval (PADI) < 14 mm
. Ranawat criterion < 15 mm
. Clark station 2
. Cervical lordosis angle < 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodens interval (PADI) < 14 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlantodens Interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic risk and recovery in rheumatoid cervical spine disease. A PADI of less than 14 mm indicates a critical loss of space for the spinal cord, correlating highly with myelopathy and serving as a strict indication for surgical intervention.

Question 6027

Topic: 6. Spine

In evaluating a patient with suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?

. Babinski sign
. Hoffmann sign
. Lhermitte sign
. Spurling sign
. Wartenberg sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hoffmann sign


Explanation

The Hoffmann sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion, often seen in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the nail of the middle finger, causing flexion of the thumb and index finger.

Question 6028

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. He is diagnosed with lumbar spinal stenosis. What pathomechanism primarily explains the relief of symptoms when flexing the spine?

. Decreased venous pooling in the lower extremities
. Increased cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina
. Release of tension on the sciatic nerve
. Reduction of a dynamic spondylolisthesis
. Relaxation of the paraspinal musculature

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina


Explanation

Spinal flexion increases the cross-sectional area of both the central canal and neural foramina, thereby decompressing the neural elements and relieving neurogenic claudication symptoms. Extension decreases this area, exacerbating symptoms.

Question 6029

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury to his neck from a fall. He has 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. He has patchy sensory loss and urinary retention. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Spinal shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with cervical spondylosis following a hyperextension injury. It presents with motor weakness that is disproportionately more severe in the upper extremities than the lower extremities, along with variable sensory loss and potential bladder dysfunction.

Question 6030

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). What is the classic mechanism of injury for this specific fracture pattern?

. Axial loading and hyperflexion
. Axial loading and hyperextension
. Lateral bending and rotation
. Hyperflexion and distraction
. Hyperextension and distraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axial loading and hyperextension


Explanation

A classic 'Hangman's fracture' (traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2) usually occurs from high-energy trauma (such as hitting the chin on a dashboard during an MVA), resulting in a combination of axial loading and hyperextension. (Note: Judicial hanging causes hyperextension and distraction).

Question 6031

Topic: 6. Spine

In a patient with an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis and associated lumbar spinal stenosis, which nerve root is most commonly compressed, and where does the compression typically occur?

. L4 nerve root in the neural foramen
. L4 nerve root in the lateral recess
. L5 nerve root in the neural foramen
. L5 nerve root in the lateral recess
. S1 nerve root in the central canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 nerve root in the lateral recess


Explanation

In L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the neural arch is intact. The traversing L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed in the lateral recess due to a combination of facet joint hypertrophy, ligamentum flavum buckling, and disc bulging.

Question 6032

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man presents with bilateral leg pain and heaviness that worsens with walking and is relieved by leaning over a shopping cart. MRI shows severe L4-L5 central canal stenosis. Which ligament hypertrophies and primarily contributes to this stenosis?

. Anterior longitudinal ligament
. Poster longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Interspinous ligament
. Supraspinous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

Lumbar spinal stenosis is commonly caused by a combination of facet arthropathy, disc bulging, and hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. Flexion relieves symptoms by stretching the ligamentum flavum and increasing the canal diameter.

Question 6033

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) following an MVC. Radiographs show a 4mm displacement and 12 degrees of angulation. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, which of the following is the mechanism of this Type II injury?

. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Hyperextension and lateral compression
. Hyperflexion and axial loading
. Hyperflexion and compression
. Hyperextension followed by severe flexion and compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension followed by severe flexion and compression


Explanation

A Type II Hangman's fracture typically results from hyperextension and axial loading followed by severe flexion and compression. This combined mechanism disrupts the C2-C3 disc, leading to displacement and angulation.

Question 6034

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral leg weakness secondary to a massive L4-L5 disc herniation. Current literature indicates that to maximize the chance of urologic recovery, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what time frame from symptom onset?

. 6 hours
. 12 hours
. 48 hours
. 72 hours
. 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. The best neurologic and urologic outcomes are associated with surgical decompression within 48 hours of symptom onset.

Question 6035

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male undergoes magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine to evaluate progressive hand clumsiness and gait imbalance. Which of the following MRI findings in the spinal cord is most predictive of a poor clinical neurological outcome following surgical decompression?

. Focal T2 hyperintensity that is isointense on T1-weighted images
. Broad-based central disc herniation at multiple levels with preserved CSF space
. Decreased T1 signal intensity coupled with increased T2 signal intensity
. Anteroposterior cord diameter of 11 mm
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum without cord impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased T1 signal intensity coupled with increased T2 signal intensity


Explanation

Foci of increased T2 signal with corresponding decreased T1 signal in the spinal cord indicate myelomalacia (cystic necrosis or cavitation of the cord). This combination is strongly associated with permanent structural cord damage and a poor prognosis for neurological recovery after decompressive surgery for cervical spondylotic myelopathy.

Question 6036

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following clinical and anatomical features correctly differentiates degenerative spondylolisthesis from isthmic spondylolisthesis in the adult lumbar spine?

. Degenerative spondylolisthesis is most commonly observed at the L5-S1 level.
. Isthmic spondylolisthesis is most commonly observed at the L4-L5 level.
. Degenerative spondylolisthesis is obligatorily associated with a bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis.
. Degenerative spondylolisthesis is most commonly seen at L4-L5 with an intact pars interarticularis.
. Isthmic spondylolisthesis predominantly presents in females over the age of 65 due to severe facet arthropathy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Degenerative spondylolisthesis is most commonly seen at L4-L5 with an intact pars interarticularis.


Explanation

Degenerative spondylolisthesis most commonly occurs at the L4-L5 level and features an intact pars interarticularis, driven primarily by facet joint incompetence and disc degeneration (most common in older females). Isthmic spondylolisthesis most commonly occurs at L5-S1, involves a pars interarticularis defect (spondylolysis), and typically presents earlier in life.

Question 6037

Topic: 6. Spine

Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) most commonly occurs in the cervical spine and can cause severe progressive myelopathy. Which of the following patient demographics and genetic markers is most strongly associated with this condition?

. Northern European descent; HLA-B27
. Asian descent; HLA-B27
. Asian descent; COL6A1 mutations and specific HLA haplotypes
. African descent; FGFR3 mutations
. Mediterranean descent; COL1A1 mutations

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asian descent; COL6A1 mutations and specific HLA haplotypes


Explanation

OPLL is highly prevalent in populations of East Asian descent (e.g., Japanese, Korean). It has been strongly linked to genetic factors, particularly mutations in the collagen 6A1 (COL6A1) gene and specific HLA haplotypes. HLA-B27 is classically associated with ankylosing spondylitis.

Question 6038

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
According to the Wiltse classification of spondylolisthesis, which type is most commonly seen at the L5-S1 level and is caused by a bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis?
. Type I (Dysplastic)
. Type II (Isthmic)
. Type III (Degenerative)
. Type IV (Traumatic)
. Type V (Pathologic)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II (Isthmic)


Explanation

Type II (Isthmic) spondylolisthesis is due to a defect in the pars interarticularis (spondylolysis) and most frequently occurs at L5-S1. This is the most common type in young patients and athletes. Degenerative (Type III) spondylolisthesis is most common at L4-L5 in older individuals. Type I (Dysplastic) involves congenital abnormalities of the upper sacrum or L5 arch.

Question 6039

Topic: 6. Spine

During the physical exam of a 65-year-old man with broad-based gait instability and hand clumsiness, you rapidly flex the distal phalanx of his middle finger, which promptly elicits involuntary flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the eponymous name of this clinical sign?

. Babinski sign
. Lhermitte's sign
. Hoffmann sign
. Inverted supinator reflex
. Spurling's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hoffmann sign


Explanation

The Hoffmann sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion, strongly suggesting cervical myelopathy in this clinical context. It is elicited by flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger.

Question 6040

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male complains of bilateral leg and buttock pain that progressively worsens with walking. You instruct him to perform a clinical stationary bicycle test. The pain does not occur while pedaling in a forward-flexed posture but occurs rapidly when standing upright. This specific finding most strongly points to:

. Vascular claudication
. Neurogenic claudication
. Hip osteoarthritis
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Diabetic neuropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurogenic claudication


Explanation

The stationary bicycle test is highly useful for differentiating neurogenic from vascular claudication. Neurogenic claudication symptoms reliably improve with lumbar flexion (which transiently widens the spinal canal) and worsen in extension, making pedaling comfortable while upright walking causes rapid pain.