This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6021
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following morphologic patterns is assigned the highest point value for injury morphology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distraction
Explanation
According to the TLICS system, distraction injuries receive 4 points for morphology, making them the highest weighted morphologic injury pattern. Translation/rotation receives 3 points, burst receives 2 points, and compression receives 1 point.
Question 6022
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old man presents with deteriorating handwriting, difficulty manipulating small objects, and frequent tripping. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and sustained ankle clonus. An MRI confirms severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Which of the following physical examination findings is also most likely to be present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A positive Babinski sign
Explanation
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy causes upper motor neuron (UMN) signs below the level of spinal cord compression. A positive Babinski sign is a classic UMN sign. Decreased reflexes, fasciculations, and flaccidity are lower motor neuron signs. The Romberg test is often positive due to dorsal column involvement impairing proprioception.
Question 6023
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old male with severe lumbar spinal stenosis complains of bilateral neurogenic claudication. He notes significant symptom relief when leaning forward over a shopping cart. What is the primary anatomic explanation for this positional relief?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexion reduces the size of the ligamentum flavum, expanding the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal.
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication improves with lumbar flexion (e.g., leaning over a shopping cart, sitting) because flexion tightens the ligamentum flavum, preventing it from buckling into the canal. This increases the cross-sectional area of the central canal and neural foramina, temporarily relieving mechanical compression and ischemia of the cauda equina.
Question 6024
Topic: 6. Spine
A 6-year-old boy with normal intelligence presents with short trunk dwarfism, knock knees, and a barrel chest. Urine analysis shows elevated levels of keratan sulfate. Radiographs of the cervical spine are most likely to demonstrate which of the following abnormalities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia
Explanation
The clinical presentation and elevated keratan sulfate are characteristic of Morquio syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV). Unlike some other MPS disorders, intelligence is preserved. A critical and potentially lethal orthopedic manifestation of Morquio syndrome is odontoid hypoplasia, leading to atlantoaxial instability and cervical myelopathy.
Question 6025
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old male is involved in a severe motor vehicle accident and sustains a burst fracture of T10 with paraplegia. He has flaccid lower extremities, areflexia, and a heart rate of 55 bpm with a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. The resolution of spinal shock in this patient is best indicated clinically by the return of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The bulbocavernosus reflex
Explanation
Spinal shock is a state of transient physiologic reflex depression of cord function below the level of injury, presenting with flaccid paralysis and areflexia. The end of the spinal shock phase is heralded by the return of the bulbocavernosus reflex (an S2-S4 reflex). Once it returns, a formal ASIA neurologic exam can reliably determine whether the spinal cord injury is complete or incomplete.
Question 6026
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive hand clumsiness and hyperreflexia. Cervical radiographs reveal atlantoaxial subluxation. Which of the following radiographic parameters is the most critical indicator of impending neurologic deterioration and the need for surgical stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior atlantodens interval (PADI) < 14 mm
Explanation
The Posterior Atlantodens Interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic risk and recovery in rheumatoid cervical spine disease. A PADI of less than 14 mm indicates a critical loss of space for the spinal cord, correlating highly with myelopathy and serving as a strict indication for surgical intervention.
Question 6027
Topic: 6. Spine
In evaluating a patient with suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hoffmann sign
Explanation
The Hoffmann sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion, often seen in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the nail of the middle finger, causing flexion of the thumb and index finger.
Question 6028
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. He is diagnosed with lumbar spinal stenosis. What pathomechanism primarily explains the relief of symptoms when flexing the spine?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina
Explanation
Spinal flexion increases the cross-sectional area of both the central canal and neural foramina, thereby decompressing the neural elements and relieving neurogenic claudication symptoms. Extension decreases this area, exacerbating symptoms.
Question 6029
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury to his neck from a fall. He has 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. He has patchy sensory loss and urinary retention. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with cervical spondylosis following a hyperextension injury. It presents with motor weakness that is disproportionately more severe in the upper extremities than the lower extremities, along with variable sensory loss and potential bladder dysfunction.
Question 6030
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). What is the classic mechanism of injury for this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axial loading and hyperextension
Explanation
A classic 'Hangman's fracture' (traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2) usually occurs from high-energy trauma (such as hitting the chin on a dashboard during an MVA), resulting in a combination of axial loading and hyperextension. (Note: Judicial hanging causes hyperextension and distraction).
Question 6031
Topic: 6. Spine
In a patient with an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis and associated lumbar spinal stenosis, which nerve root is most commonly compressed, and where does the compression typically occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5 nerve root in the lateral recess
Explanation
In L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the neural arch is intact. The traversing L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed in the lateral recess due to a combination of facet joint hypertrophy, ligamentum flavum buckling, and disc bulging.
Question 6032
Topic: 6. Spine
A 72-year-old man presents with bilateral leg pain and heaviness that worsens with walking and is relieved by leaning over a shopping cart. MRI shows severe L4-L5 central canal stenosis. Which ligament hypertrophies and primarily contributes to this stenosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ligamentum flavum
Explanation
Lumbar spinal stenosis is commonly caused by a combination of facet arthropathy, disc bulging, and hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. Flexion relieves symptoms by stretching the ligamentum flavum and increasing the canal diameter.
Question 6033
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) following an MVC. Radiographs show a 4mm displacement and 12 degrees of angulation. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, which of the following is the mechanism of this Type II injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hyperextension followed by severe flexion and compression
Explanation
A Type II Hangman's fracture typically results from hyperextension and axial loading followed by severe flexion and compression. This combined mechanism disrupts the C2-C3 disc, leading to displacement and angulation.
Question 6034
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents with acute urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral leg weakness secondary to a massive L4-L5 disc herniation. Current literature indicates that to maximize the chance of urologic recovery, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what time frame from symptom onset?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 48 hours
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. The best neurologic and urologic outcomes are associated with surgical decompression within 48 hours of symptom onset.
Question 6035
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male undergoes magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine to evaluate progressive hand clumsiness and gait imbalance. Which of the following MRI findings in the spinal cord is most predictive of a poor clinical neurological outcome following surgical decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased T1 signal intensity coupled with increased T2 signal intensity
Explanation
Foci of increased T2 signal with corresponding decreased T1 signal in the spinal cord indicate myelomalacia (cystic necrosis or cavitation of the cord). This combination is strongly associated with permanent structural cord damage and a poor prognosis for neurological recovery after decompressive surgery for cervical spondylotic myelopathy.
Question 6036
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which of the following clinical and anatomical features correctly differentiates degenerative spondylolisthesis from isthmic spondylolisthesis in the adult lumbar spine?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Degenerative spondylolisthesis is most commonly seen at L4-L5 with an intact pars interarticularis.
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis most commonly occurs at the L4-L5 level and features an intact pars interarticularis, driven primarily by facet joint incompetence and disc degeneration (most common in older females). Isthmic spondylolisthesis most commonly occurs at L5-S1, involves a pars interarticularis defect (spondylolysis), and typically presents earlier in life.
Question 6037
Topic: 6. Spine
Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) most commonly occurs in the cervical spine and can cause severe progressive myelopathy. Which of the following patient demographics and genetic markers is most strongly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Asian descent; COL6A1 mutations and specific HLA haplotypes
Explanation
OPLL is highly prevalent in populations of East Asian descent (e.g., Japanese, Korean). It has been strongly linked to genetic factors, particularly mutations in the collagen 6A1 (COL6A1) gene and specific HLA haplotypes. HLA-B27 is classically associated with ankylosing spondylitis.
Question 6038
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
According to the Wiltse classification of spondylolisthesis, which type is most commonly seen at the L5-S1 level and is caused by a bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II (Isthmic)
Explanation
Type II (Isthmic) spondylolisthesis is due to a defect in the pars interarticularis (spondylolysis) and most frequently occurs at L5-S1. This is the most common type in young patients and athletes. Degenerative (Type III) spondylolisthesis is most common at L4-L5 in older individuals. Type I (Dysplastic) involves congenital abnormalities of the upper sacrum or L5 arch.
Question 6039
Topic: 6. Spine
During the physical exam of a 65-year-old man with broad-based gait instability and hand clumsiness, you rapidly flex the distal phalanx of his middle finger, which promptly elicits involuntary flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the eponymous name of this clinical sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hoffmann sign
Explanation
The Hoffmann sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion, strongly suggesting cervical myelopathy in this clinical context. It is elicited by flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger, resulting in reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger.
Question 6040
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male complains of bilateral leg and buttock pain that progressively worsens with walking. You instruct him to perform a clinical stationary bicycle test. The pain does not occur while pedaling in a forward-flexed posture but occurs rapidly when standing upright. This specific finding most strongly points to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neurogenic claudication
Explanation
The stationary bicycle test is highly useful for differentiating neurogenic from vascular claudication. Neurogenic claudication symptoms reliably improve with lumbar flexion (which transiently widens the spinal canal) and worsen in extension, making pedaling comfortable while upright walking causes rapid pain.
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