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Question 41

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms best describes Grisel's syndrome?

. Congenital failure of segmentation of the cervical spine
. Autoimmune destruction of the transverse ligament
. Atlantoaxial subluxation secondary to inflammatory retropharyngeal hyperemia
. Ischemic necrosis of the odontoid process
. Traumatic rupture of the alar ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlantoaxial subluxation secondary to inflammatory retropharyngeal hyperemia


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation caused by inflammatory hyperemia of the retropharyngeal space. This typically occurs following a head or neck infection, leading to laxity of the transverse ligament.

Question 42

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old patient presents with neck pain radiating down the right arm. Examination shows weakness in triceps extension and wrist flexion, with numbness isolated to the middle finger. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

A C7 radiculopathy classically presents with weakness in the triceps (elbow extension) and wrist flexors. It is also associated with an absent or diminished triceps reflex and sensory changes in the middle finger.

Question 43

Topic: 6. Spine

Which radiographic finding is essential to confirm the diagnosis of Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH) according to Resnick's criteria?

. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies
. Preservation of the sacroiliac joints without sclerosis
. Complete ankylosis of the facet joints
. Squaring of the vertebral bodies with bamboo spine appearance
. Extensive intervertebral disc degeneration with severe vacuum phenomenon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies


Explanation

Resnick's criteria for DISH require flowing ossification of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies. It also requires the preservation of disc height and the absence of sacroiliac joint or apophyseal joint ankylosis.

Question 44

Topic: 6. Spine

In the Levine-Edwards classification of traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture), a Type IIA fracture is characterized by which of the following?

. Hairline fracture through the pars interarticularis with no displacement
. Fracture with significant anterior translation and no angulation
. Fracture with severe angulation and minimal translation
. Unilateral facet dislocation combined with a pars fracture
. Complete disruption of the C2-C3 disc space with facet dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fracture with severe angulation and minimal translation


Explanation

A Type IIA Hangman's fracture represents a flexion-distraction injury characterized by severe angulation with minimal anterior translation. Traction is strictly contraindicated in Type IIA injuries as it will exacerbate the deformity.

Question 45

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents after a minor fall with neck pain but intact neurology. CT reveals a fracture through the C5-C6 disc space extending into the posterior elements. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization for 8 weeks
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion alone
. Long-segment posterior instrumented fusion
. Observation and physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long-segment posterior instrumented fusion


Explanation

Cervical spine fractures in ankylosing spondylitis often act as long-bone fractures and are highly unstable, carrying a significant risk of delayed neurologic deterioration. Long-segment posterior instrumented fusion is the gold standard for robust stabilization.

Question 46

Topic: 6. Spine

An 80-year-old male with severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy has multi-level compression from C3 to C6 predominantly due to ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL). Radiographs show a fixed, rigid kyphotic deformity of 15 degrees. Which surgical approach is generally indicated?

. C3-C6 laminectomy alone
. C3-C6 laminoplasty
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior instrumented fusion without decompression
. Cervical disc arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion


Explanation

In the presence of a rigid kyphotic deformity, posterior indirect decompression (laminectomy or laminoplasty) is contraindicated because the spinal cord will not drift backward. An anterior or combined approach is required to correct the kyphosis and directly decompress the OPLL.

Question 47

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which radiographic finding best differentiates an os odontoideum from an acute Type II odontoid fracture?

. Presence of an anterior arch of C1
. Hypertrophy of the anterior arch of C1 with a rounded, sclerotic margin of the ossicle
. Sharp, irregular radiolucent line at the base of the dens
. Posterior displacement of the dens relative to C2
. Widening of the predental space > 3 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypertrophy of the anterior arch of C1 with a rounded, sclerotic margin of the ossicle


Explanation

Os odontoideum presents with smooth, rounded, sclerotic borders of the ossicle and an associated hypertrophic anterior arch of the atlas. This indicates a chronic, long-standing process, unlike the sharp, irregular fracture lines seen in an acute injury.

Question 48

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis, what measurement of the anterior atlantodens interval (ADI) is generally considered an absolute indication for surgical stabilization, even if the patient is asymptomatic?

. > 3 mm
. > 5 mm
. > 9 mm
. Any measurable ADI
. < 3 mm with dynamic flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 9 mm


Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 9 to 10 mm signifies failure of the alar ligaments and apical ligaments in addition to the transverse ligament. This places the spinal cord at significant risk, warranting prophylactic surgical stabilization.

Question 49

Topic: 6. Spine

A trauma patient presents with complete loss of motor and sensory function below T4 following a motorcycle accident. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. Which of the following statements regarding the patient's prognosis is most accurate?

. The patient has an incomplete spinal cord injury and will likely regain full function.
. Prognosis for neurologic recovery cannot be accurately determined until the bulbocavernosus reflex returns.
. The absence of the reflex confirms a permanent complete spinal cord injury.
. High-dose methylprednisolone guarantees immediate neurologic recovery.
. Immediate surgical decompression will reliably reverse the reflex loss within 1 hour.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prognosis for neurologic recovery cannot be accurately determined until the bulbocavernosus reflex returns.


Explanation

The absence of the bulbocavernosus reflex indicates the patient is in a state of spinal shock. A definitive diagnosis of complete versus incomplete spinal cord injury cannot be established until spinal shock resolves.

Question 50

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with cervical spondylotic myelopathy exhibits a positive inverted supinator reflex on examination. This abnormal reflex is characterized by a diminished brachioradialis response accompanied by which of the following simultaneous actions?

. Biceps brachii contraction
. Triceps brachii contraction
. Finger flexion
. Wrist extension
. Shoulder abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Finger flexion


Explanation

The inverted supinator reflex occurs when tapping the brachioradialis tendon produces finger flexion rather than the normal reflex, indicating an upper motor neuron lesion at the C5-C6 level.

Question 51

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

According to the Sorensen criteria, classic Scheuermann's kyphosis is defined radiographically by a thoracic kyphosis greater than 40 degrees accompanied by which of the following?

. Anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in 2 consecutive vertebrae
. Anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in 3 consecutive vertebrae
. Anterior wedging of at least 10 degrees in 2 consecutive vertebrae
. Schmorl's nodes in at least 3 consecutive vertebrae
. Endplate irregularities in 4 consecutive vertebrae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in 3 consecutive vertebrae


Explanation

The Sorensen criteria strictly define classic Scheuermann's disease as thoracic kyphosis > 40 degrees with anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three or more consecutive vertebrae.

Question 52

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old child presents with torticollis and severe neck stiffness one week after undergoing an adenotonsillectomy. Radiographs demonstrate atlantoaxial subluxation without evidence of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Os odontoideum
. Grisel's syndrome
. Morquio syndrome
. Jefferson fracture
. Eosinophilic granuloma of the atlas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel's syndrome


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation most commonly seen in children following upper respiratory tract infections or head and neck surgeries due to inflammatory ligamentous laxity.

Question 53

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the Levine-Edwards classification, a Type II Hangman's fracture (traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis) is generated by which specific mechanism of injury?

. Hyperextension followed by severe axial loading and flexion
. Pure hyperextension with axial distraction
. Hyperflexion with posterior distraction
. Lateral bending with axial compression
. Pure rotational injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension followed by severe axial loading and flexion


Explanation

A Type II Hangman's fracture involves an initial hyperextension force that fractures the pars, followed by severe axial loading and a secondary flexion rebound causing displacement.

Question 54

Topic: 6. Spine

When evaluating a Jefferson burst fracture on an AP open-mouth radiograph, what combined lateral mass overhang measurement (Rule of Spence) is historically used to indicate a high probability of transverse ligament rupture?

. > 3.5 mm
. > 6.9 mm
. > 9.0 mm
. > 12.0 mm
. > 15.0 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 6.9 mm


Explanation

The Rule of Spence states that a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 of greater than 6.9 mm on an AP open-mouth radiograph suggests an incompetent transverse alar ligament.

Question 55

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with sharp, radiating neck pain. Neurological examination reveals weakness in triceps extension, a diminished triceps reflex, and numbness over the dorsal aspect of the middle finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

C7 radiculopathy is the most common cervical radiculopathy and typically presents with weakness in the triceps and wrist flexors, diminished triceps reflex, and paresthesias in the middle finger.

Question 56

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with a long history of Ankylosing Spondylitis suffers a mechanical fall from a standing height. He complains of moderate lower neck pain. Initial plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Reassure the patient and prescribe oral NSAIDs
. Order dynamic flexion-extension cervical radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine
. Perform a diagnostic facet block
. Apply a soft cervical collar and follow up in 2 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines highly susceptible to unstable fractures from minor trauma. A CT scan is mandatory if plain films are negative but clinical suspicion remains.

Question 57

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), the surgeon retracts the longus colli muscles laterally to expose the vertebral bodies. Vigorous or prolonged lateral retraction of this muscle places which of the following structures at highest risk of injury?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Cervical sympathetic chain
. Phrenic nerve
. Hypoglossal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical sympathetic chain


Explanation

The cervical sympathetic chain runs vertically along the lateral border of the longus colli muscle. Lateral retraction can compress it, potentially causing an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome.

Question 58

Topic: 6. Spine

In a 5-year-old trauma patient, a lateral cervical spine radiograph shows apparent anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. To differentiate physiologic pseudosubluxation from true traumatic injury, which radiographic line should be drawn to assess the alignment of the posterior arches?

. Swischuk's line
. Wackenheim's line
. McRae's line
. Chamberlain's line
. McGregor's line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Swischuk's line


Explanation

Swischuk's line is drawn from the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C1 to C3. If the anterior border of the posterior arch of C2 misses this line by >= 2 mm, it indicates a true pathologic subluxation.

Question 59

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with neck stiffness. Radiographs show flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of the cervical spine. To meet Resnick's strict radiographic criteria for Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH), how many contiguous vertebral bodies must be involved?

. Two
. Three
. Four
. Five
. Six

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Four


Explanation

Resnick's criteria for DISH require flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, preservation of disc height, and the absence of facet ankylosis or sacroiliitis.

Question 60

Topic: 6. Spine

Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) is a progressive condition that can lead to severe cervical myelopathy. Which of the following demographic groups has the highest prevalence of OPLL?

. Caucasian females in their 20s
. African American males in their 30s
. Asian males over 50 years of age
. Hispanic females in their 60s
. Pediatric patients of Mediterranean descent

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asian males over 50 years of age


Explanation

OPLL is notably endemic in East Asian populations, particularly among Japanese men over the age of 50. It often presents with progressive myelopathy due to central canal stenosis.