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Question 541

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 40-year-old man sustains an axial load injury to his head resulting in a Jefferson fracture. Open-mouth odontoid radiographs reveal lateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1 relative to C2. According to the Rule of Spence, what total combined overhang of the lateral masses strongly suggests incompetence of the transverse atlantal ligament?

. > 3 mm
. > 5 mm
. > 6.9 mm
. > 9 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 3 mm


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that a combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of greater than 6.9 mm on an open-mouth radiograph indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the injury highly unstable.

Question 542

Topic: 6. Spine

If the C 6 cervical spine nerve root is injured during a posterior decompression of the cervical spine, then sensation is lost in which of the following areas:

. The lateral aspect of the arm from the shoulder to the elbow
. The medial aspect of the arm from the shoulder to the elbow
. The lateral border of the forearm including the thumb
. The middle finger
. The medial border of the forearm including the little finger

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The lateral aspect of the arm from the shoulder to the elbow


Explanation

If the C 6 cervical spine nerve root is injured during a posterior decompression of the cervical spine, then sensation is lost in which of the following areas: C 5 Lateral aspect of the arm from the shoulder to the elbow C 6 Lateral border of the forearm including the thumb C 7 Middle finger C 8 Medial border of the forearm including the little finger T1 Medial aspect of the arm from the shoulder to the elbow

Question 543

Topic: 6. Spine

If the brachioradialis reflex is diminished after a posterior spinal decompression, then which of the following nerve roots is injured:

. C 5
. C 6
. C 7
. C 8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C 5


Explanation

The brachioradialis reflex is mediated by the C 6 cervical spine nerve root. C 5 Biceps C 6 Brachioradialis C 7 Triceps

Question 544

Topic: 6. Spine

If the triceps muscle is weak after a spinal decompression, then which of the following nerve roots is injured:

. C 5
. C 6
. C 7
. C 8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C 7


Explanation

The triceps muscle extends the elbow and is innervated by the C 7 cervical spine nerve root. Motor innervations include: Shoulder abduction (deltoid) - - C 5 Elbow flexion - - C 5 Wrist extension - - C 6, C 7 Wrist flexion - - C 7 Finger extension - - C 7 Finger flexion - - C 8 Finger abduction/adduction - - T1

Question 545

Topic: 6. Spine

If the flexor carpi radialis is weak after a spinal decompression, then which of the following nerve roots is injured:

. C 5
. C 6
. C 7
. C 8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C 7


Explanation

The flexor carpi radialis is the most powerful wrist flexor and is innervated by the C 7 cervical spine nerve root. The flexor carpi ulnaris, which is weaker than the flexor carpi radialis, is innervated by the C 8 cervical spine nerve root.

Question 546

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient has a fracture dislocation of the cervical spine. Which of the following nerve roots must be spared to preserve intact finger extension:

. C 5
. C 6
. C 7
. C 8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C 7


Explanation

Finger extensors are innervated by the C 7 cervical spine nerve root. Motor innervations include: Shoulder abduction (deltoid) - - C 5 Elbow flexion - - C 5 Wrist extension - - C 6, C 7 Wrist flexion - - C 7 Finger extension - - C 7 Finger flexion - - C 8 Finger abduction/adduction - - T1

Question 547

Topic: 6. Spine

The left medial and lateral gastrocnemius muscles are weak in a patient after a lumbar spine decompression. Which of the following nerve roots is injured:

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S1


Explanation

The medial and lateral gastrocnemius muscles are principally innervated by the S1 nerve root through the tibial nerve. Although the nerve is principally innervated by the S1 nerve root, the tibial nerve is derived from the L5, S1, and S2 nerve roots. The muscles principally innervated by the S1 nerve root are the: Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis Gastrocnemius-soleus complex Gluteus maximus

Question 548

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with cauda equina syndrome has decreased perianal sensation. Which of the following groups of nerve roots is involved:

. L2, L3, and L4
. L3, L4, and L5
. L5, S1, and S2
. S1, S2, and S3
. S2, S3, S4, and S5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S2, S3, S4, and S5


Explanation

Perianal sensation is derived from the S2, S3, S4, and S5 nerve roots. The sensory distribution is as follows: S4-S5 - - Innermost perianal ring S3 - - Middle perianal ring S2 - - Outermost perianal ring

Question 549

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with a fracture dislocation of the spine has a sensory level at the nipple line. Which of the following nerve root levels indicates this finding:

. T2
. T4
. T7
. T10
. T12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T4


Explanation

In addition to knowing the innervation of selected muscles and the deep tendon reflexes, the clinician should also know the sensory levels to localize pathologic processes. T4 Nipple line T7 Xiphoid process T10 Umbilicus T12 Groin

Question 550

Topic: 6. Spine

An elderly patient with pre-existing cervical stenosis experiences a hyperextension injury to the neck. Examination reveals profound weakness in the upper extremities with relatively preserved lower extremity strength. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a stenotic cervical spine. It causes greater motor impairment in the upper extremities than the lower extremities due to the central location of the upper extremity corticospinal tracts.

Question 551

Topic: 6. Spine

Following a burst fracture of C5, a patient has bilateral loss of motor function and pain/temperature sensation below the level of injury, but intact proprioception and vibratory sense. Which spinal cord syndrome is present?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Anterior cord syndrome results from injury to the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, causing loss of motor, pain, and temperature sensation. The dorsal columns are spared, preserving proprioception and vibration.

Question 552

Topic: 6. Spine

During evaluation of a 65-year-old male with clumsy hands and gait imbalance, flicking the nail of the middle finger results in flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is this clinical sign called?

. Babinski sign
. Lhermitte's sign
. Hoffmann's sign
. Spurling's sign
. Oppenheim's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hoffmann's sign


Explanation

Hoffmann's sign is an indicator of an upper motor neuron lesion and is a classic finding in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger, causing reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger.

Question 553

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient complains of right-sided neck pain radiating to the shoulder. Extension, lateral bending, and axial compression of the neck reproduce the radiating arm pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate term for this test?

. Lhermitte's test
. Spurling's maneuver
. Adson's test
. Wright's test
. Roos test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spurling's maneuver


Explanation

Spurling's maneuver narrows the neural foramen and exacerbates symptoms of cervical radiculopathy. A positive test is the reproduction of radicular arm pain.

Question 554

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 70-year-old patient falls and sustains a fracture through the base of the odontoid process. Why does this specific fracture type have a high rate of nonunion?

. Disruption of the transverse ligament
. Poor blood supply to the dens watershed area
. Interposition of the alar ligaments
. Inadequate immobilization with a halo vest
. High proportion of cancellous bone at the base

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Poor blood supply to the dens watershed area


Explanation

Type II odontoid fractures occur at the junction of the dens and the body of C2. They have a high nonunion rate due to the tenuous blood supply at this watershed area and the relatively small fracture surface area.

Question 555

Topic: 6. Spine

Traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) typically involves bilateral fractures of the pars interarticularis of C2. What is the classic mechanism of injury?

. Axial loading
. Hyperflexion and rotation
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Lateral bending
. Direct shear force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture is typically caused by hyperextension and axial loading, such as in motor vehicle accidents where the chin strikes the dashboard. This results in bilateral pars interarticularis fractures of C2.

Question 556

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old male dove into a shallow pool and sustained a burst fracture of the C1 ring. Which radiographic finding on the open-mouth odontoid view is most critical for determining the integrity of the transverse atlantal ligament?

. Prevertebral soft tissue swelling > 6 mm
. Anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) > 3 mm
. Combined lateral mass displacement > 6.9 mm
. Basion-dens interval > 12 mm
. C2-C3 subluxation > 3 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Combined lateral mass displacement > 6.9 mm


Explanation

In a Jefferson fracture, a combined lateral mass overhang (displacement) of greater than 6.9 mm on the AP open-mouth view strongly suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. This indicates significant atlantoaxial instability.

Question 557

Topic: Cervical Spine

A patient undergoes anterior cervical discectomy and fusion at C5-C6. Postoperatively, a new C6 nerve root palsy is noted. Which motor deficit is most likely expected?

. Weakness of shoulder abduction
. Weakness of elbow extension
. Weakness of wrist extension
. Weakness of finger flexion
. Weakness of finger abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness of wrist extension


Explanation

The C6 nerve root innervates the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, primarily controlling wrist extension. It also contributes heavily to elbow flexion.

Question 558

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis sustains a minor fall. He complains of severe neck pain but has no immediate neurological deficits. What is the most critical management step?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and soft collar
. Flexion-extension radiographs to assess stability
. Immediate CT scan of the cervical spine
. Cervical traction to realign the spine
. Electromyography to assess subclinical injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate CT scan of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at extremely high risk for unstable, rigid-spine fractures even from minor trauma. An immediate CT scan is mandatory because plain radiographs often miss these fractures due to altered anatomy and osteopenia.

Question 559

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old Asian male presents with progressive clumsiness of his hands and a spastic gait. Lateral cervical radiographs reveal a dense, radiopaque strip along the posterior aspect of the cervical vertebral bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)
. Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL)
. Ankylosing Spondylitis
. Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy
. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL)


Explanation

OPLL is common in patients of Asian descent and presents with signs of cervical myelopathy. Radiographs show a classic ossification of the ligament situated just posterior to the vertebral bodies.

Question 560

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior cervical mass screw placement at C1, the surgeon must be cautious of the vertebral artery. Where does the vertebral artery typically lie in relation to the C1 posterior arch?

. Anterior to the anterior tubercle
. In a groove on the superior surface of the posterior arch
. In a groove on the inferior surface of the posterior arch
. Directly lateral to the lateral mass
. Medial to the spinal cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the anterior tubercle


Explanation

The vertebral artery exits the C1 transverse foramen and courses medially in the vertebral groove (sulcus arteriae vertebralis). This groove is located on the superior surface of the posterior arch of the atlas.