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Question 5401

Topic: 6. Spine

A 38-year-old man presents with sudden, severe, unremitting right shoulder pain lasting for 2 weeks, followed by profound weakness of the shoulder and arm as the pain begins to subside. MRI of the shoulder and cervical spine is normal. EMG reveals denervation in the deltoid and supraspinatus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cervical radiculopathy
. Brachial neuritis
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment
. Massive rotator cuff tear
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachial neuritis


Explanation

Brachial neuritis (Parsonage-Turner syndrome) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder girdle pain that transitions to profound weakness and atrophy as the pain improves. It is a self-limiting viral/autoimmune plexopathy.

Question 5402

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-year-old boy has a history of easy bruising, swollen gums, and poor wound healing. Radiographs of his lower extremities show a dense zone of provisional calcification at the metaphyses (Frankel line). The underlying pathophysiology involves a defect in the synthesis of which of the following proteins?

. Type II collagen
. Aggrecan
. Type I collagen
. Fibrillin-1
. Elastin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

The clinical picture describes scurvy caused by Vitamin C deficiency, leading to impaired hydroxylation of proline and lysine. This primarily affects the structural integrity and cross-linking of Type I collagen.

Question 5403

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his upper extremities. Imaging reveals a chordoma at the cervical spine. Histological examination of this tumor classically demonstrates which of the following cells?

. Physaliferous cells
. Reed-Sternberg cells
. Small blue round cells
. Osteoclast-like giant cells
. Spindle cells in a herringbone pattern

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physaliferous cells


Explanation

Chordomas arise from notochord remnants and typically occur in the sacrococcygeal region or base of the skull, though they can present in the mobile spine. Histologically, they are characterized by physaliferous cells, which are large cells with vacuolated cytoplasm.

Question 5404

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-month-old infant presents with irritability, bleeding gums, and pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show an epiphyseal separation, a white line of Frankel, and a Wimberger ring sign. This condition is caused by a deficiency in which of the following?

. Vitamin D
. Calcium
. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Parathyroid hormone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)


Explanation

Scurvy is caused by Vitamin C deficiency, which impairs collagen cross-linking by preventing the hydroxylation of proline and lysine. Radiographic signs include the white line of Frankel, Pelkan spurs, and the Wimberger ring sign.

Question 5405

Topic: 6. Spine

A spine surgeon is performing a posterior cervical foraminotomy at C6-C7. Understanding the vascular anatomy of the cervical spine is critical to prevent iatrogenic injury. Which of the following is true regarding the transverse foramen of the C7 vertebra?

. It transmits the vertebral artery and vein
. It transmits only the vertebral artery
. It transmits only the vertebral vein
. It is absent in the majority of individuals
. It transmits the common carotid artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It transmits only the vertebral vein


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at C6 and travels proximally. The C7 transverse foramen usually contains only the vertebral vein and sympathetic nerves.

Question 5406

Topic: Cervical Spine

When performing an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), knowledge of the vertebral artery's course is crucial. Moving from proximal to distal, the vertebral artery typically first enters the foramen transversarium at which cervical level?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The vertebral artery normally branches off the subclavian artery and enters the foramen transversarium at the level of C6. It rarely enters at C7, making the C7 transverse foramen often vacant of the main artery.

Question 5407

Topic: 6. Spine

To prevent neurapraxia on a fracture table, the perineal post must be adequately padded to protect the pudendal nerve. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen by wrapping around the:

. Ischial tuberosity
. Anterior inferior iliac spine
. Posterior superior iliac spine
. Ischial spine
. Sacral promontory

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischial spine


Explanation

The pudendal nerve exits the greater sciatic foramen, crosses posterior to the sacrospinous ligament, and hooks tightly around the ischial spine to re-enter the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. This tethering makes it vulnerable to traction injuries from a perineal post.

Question 5408

Topic: 6. Spine

When preparing for pedicle screw instrumentation in the lumbar spine, understanding the transverse pedicle angulation is critical. How does the medial pedicle angulation in the transverse plane typically change from L1 to L5?

. Decreases progressively from L1 to L5
. Increases progressively from L1 to L5
. Remains constant across all lumbar segments
. Increases from L1 to L3 then decreases
. Decreases from L1 to L3 then increases

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases progressively from L1 to L5


Explanation

The medial angulation of the lumbar pedicles in the transverse (axial) plane increases progressively from approximately 10 degrees at L1 to 25-30 degrees at L5. This requires an increasingly medial trajectory for screw insertion moving caudally.

Question 5409

Topic: 6. Spine

During posterior cervical spine surgery, the suboccipital triangle must be carefully navigated. Which structures are primarily contained within this anatomical boundary?

. Internal carotid artery and C2 nerve root
. Vertebral artery and suboccipital nerve (C1)
. Vertebral artery and greater occipital nerve (C2)
. External carotid artery and C1 nerve root
. Occipital artery and C3 nerve root

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertebral artery and suboccipital nerve (C1)


Explanation

The suboccipital triangle is bounded by the rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis superior, and obliquus capitis inferior. It contains the vertebral artery and the suboccipital nerve (dorsal ramus of C1).

Question 5410

Topic: 6. Spine

When placing a pedicle screw in the lumbar spine, violating the medial cortex of the pedicle places which of the following structures at greatest immediate risk?

. Nerve root exiting at the level below
. Nerve root exiting at the same level
. Sympathetic chain
. Cauda equina or traversing nerve root
. Lumbar plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cauda equina or traversing nerve root


Explanation

The medial wall of the lumbar pedicle borders the spinal canal. A medial breach of the pedicle risks direct injury to the dural sac (cauda equina) or the traversing nerve root, which exits at the level below.

Question 5411

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with cervical spondylosis sustains a hyperextension injury to his neck. He subsequently develops profound weakness in his upper extremities with relatively preserved motor function in his lower extremities. The pattern of weakness is due to the somatotopic organization of which of the following spinal cord tracts?

. Lateral spinothalamic tract
. Anterior spinothalamic tract
. Lateral corticospinal tract
. Dorsal columns
. Spinocerebellar tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral corticospinal tract


Explanation

Central cord syndrome preferentially affects the upper extremities because the motor fibers for the arms are located more centrally (medially) within the lateral corticospinal tract, whereas leg fibers are peripheral.

Question 5412

Topic: 6. Spine

During a far lateral approach to the L4-L5 lumbar spine for a foraminal disc herniation, the exiting nerve root is at risk. Where does the L4 nerve root travel in relation to the L4 pedicle?

. Superior to the pedicle
. Directly anterior to the pedicle
. Inferior to the pedicle
. Posterior to the pars interarticularis
. Through the central canal without exiting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior to the pedicle


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, the exiting nerve root travels inferior to the pedicle of the same numbered vertebra. Therefore, the L4 nerve root exits the neural foramen directly below the L4 pedicle.

Question 5413

Topic: Cervical Spine

The alar ligaments play a critical role in stabilizing the craniocervical junction. What is their primary biomechanical function?

. Limit atlanto-occipital flexion
. Limit atlanto-axial axial rotation
. Limit atlanto-axial extension
. Prevent anterior translation of the atlas on the axis
. Prevent vertical settling of the odontoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Limit atlanto-axial axial rotation


Explanation

The alar ligaments extend from the sides of the dens to the medial aspects of the occipital condyles. They act primarily to limit axial rotation and lateral bending at the atlanto-axial joint.

Question 5414

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

An 18-year-old gymnast complains of chronic lower back pain. Radiographs reveal a pars interarticularis defect (spondylolysis). Anatomically, the pars interarticularis is a bony bridge located between which two structures?

. Pedicle and lamina
. Superior and inferior articular processes
. Spinous process and lamina
. Transverse process and pedicle
. Vertebral body and pedicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior and inferior articular processes


Explanation

The pars interarticularis is the specific region of the vertebral arch situated between the superior and inferior articular processes. It is highly susceptible to fatigue fractures in athletes experiencing repetitive hyperextension.

Question 5415

Topic: 6. Spine

A spine surgeon is planning freehand placement of thoracic pedicle screws for a severe scoliosis deformity. Understanding pedicle morphometry is critical to avoid spinal cord or vascular injury. In the normal thoracic spine, which level typically has the narrowest pedicle diameter in the transverse (mediolateral) plane?

. T1
. T4
. T8
. T10
. T12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T4


Explanation

In the thoracic spine, the pedicle diameter in the transverse plane is generally narrowest between T3 and T6, with T4 typically being the narrowest. This makes pedicle screw placement in the upper-mid thoracic spine particularly challenging and increases the risk of cortical breach.

Question 5416

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior cervical foraminotomy at the C5-C6 level for radiculopathy, aggressive lateral dissection with a burr anterior to the neural foramen places a major arterial structure at risk. This artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

. C7
. C6
. C5
. C4
. C3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The vertebral artery most commonly enters the cervical spine at the C6 transverse foramen. It ascends anterior to the exiting cervical nerve roots, making it vulnerable during overly aggressive anterior and lateral foraminotomies.

Question 5417

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior approach to the thoracolumbar spine for a T11 corpectomy, the surgeon must avoid ligating segmental vessels unnecessarily to prevent spinal cord ischemia. The Artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly enters the spinal canal on the left side between which vertebral levels?

. T4 - T8
. T9 - L1
. L2 - L4
. C7 - T1
. L5 - S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T9 - L1


Explanation

The Artery of Adamkiewicz (arteria radicularis magna) is the major blood supply to the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. In the majority of individuals, it arises on the left side between the T9 and L1 vertebral levels.

Question 5418

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with a right-sided paracentral disc herniation at the C5-C6 level causing severe radiculopathy. Which nerve root is most likely compressed, and where does it exit relative to the corresponding pedicle?

. C5 root, exiting above the C5 pedicle
. C5 root, exiting below the C5 pedicle
. C6 root, exiting above the C6 pedicle
. C6 root, exiting below the C6 pedicle
. C7 root, exiting above the C7 pedicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6 root, exiting above the C6 pedicle


Explanation

In the cervical spine, nerve roots exit through the intervertebral foramina ABOVE their correspondingly named pedicles (e.g., the C6 root exits above the C6 pedicle at C5-C6). This contrasts with the lumbar spine, where roots exit below their corresponding pedicles.

Question 5419

Topic: Cervical Spine

A patient with advanced rheumatoid arthritis presents with myelopathic symptoms. Flexion-extension radiographs show significant atlantoaxial instability. Which ligament, primarily responsible for limiting axial rotation and lateral bending between the occiput and the axis, is most likely compromised?

. Transverse ligament
. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Posterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alar ligament


Explanation

The alar ligaments connect the dens to the occipital condyles and are the primary restraints to axial rotation and lateral bending at the craniocervical junction.

Question 5420

Topic: 6. Spine

A spine surgeon is placing percutaneous pedicle screws in the thoracolumbar junction. A breach of the anterior vertebral body cortex places which major vascular structure at greatest risk on the left side at the T11-L1 levels?

. Inferior vena cava
. Azygos vein
. Aorta
. Common iliac artery
. Segmental medullary artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aorta


Explanation

The aorta is located strictly left-sided and immediately anterior to the vertebral bodies at the T11-L1 levels. An anterior cortical breach by a left-sided pedicle screw in this region places the aorta at severe risk of injury.