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Question 5361

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old male sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He has no neurologic deficits but has a history of severe COPD and congestive heart failure. Which of the following treatments is associated with the highest morbidity and mortality in this specific patient population?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Soft cervical collar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

Halo vest immobilization in the elderly population carries a significant risk of complications, including respiratory failure, pin site infections, and dysphagia. Studies show an unacceptably high morbidity and mortality rate (up to 30%) compared to surgical fixation or collar immobilization.

Question 5362

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute severe leg pain. MRI demonstrates a large far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level.

Which of the following physical examination findings is most expected in this patient?

. Decreased ankle reflex
. Weakness in ankle plantarflexion
. Weakness in knee extension
. Decreased sensation over the plantar foot
. Weakness in great toe extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in knee extension


Explanation

A far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, unlike a paracentral herniation which compresses the traversing L5 root. L4 root compression characteristically presents with weakness in knee extension (quadriceps), a diminished patellar reflex, and sensory changes over the medial leg.

Question 5363

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 62-year-old male undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). The surgeon chooses a right-sided approach to the lower cervical spine. To avoid postoperative hoarseness, the surgeon must be mindful of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN). Which of the following best describes its anatomic course on the right side compared to the left?

. It loops under the aortic arch
. It is more susceptible to injury due to a highly variable and more oblique course
. It courses directly medial to the trachea in all patients
. It travels within the carotid sheath exclusively
. It loops under the subclavian vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is more susceptible to injury due to a highly variable and more oblique course


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends in a more oblique and variable course toward the tracheoesophageal groove. This makes it theoretically more susceptible to injury during a right-sided lower cervical approach compared to the left RLN, which loops under the aortic arch and ascends vertically within the groove.

Question 5364

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 65-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive clumsiness in her hands and difficulty walking. Flexion-extension radiographs reveal an anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most critical parameter to evaluate on imaging to determine her risk of impending severe neurologic deficit?

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI)
. Ranawat criterion
. McGregor's line
. Atlanto-occipital angle
. Clivus-canal angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI)


Explanation

The posterior atlantodental interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery and risk of deficit in rheumatoid atlantoaxial subluxation. A PADI of less than 14 mm is a strong indication for surgical stabilization to prevent irreversible spinal cord injury.

Question 5365

Topic: 6. Spine

In the emergency evaluation of a patient with spinal trauma, examination reveals preserved proprioception and light touch sensation in the lower extremities but a complete loss of bilateral motor function and pain/temperature sensation below the umbilicus. Which of the following vascular territories is most likely compromised?

. Anterior spinal artery
. Posterior spinal arteries
. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
. Vertebral arteries
. Great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior spinal artery


Explanation

This clinical presentation is classic for anterior cord syndrome, characterized by loss of motor function and pain/temperature sensation with preservation of the dorsal columns (proprioception and light touch). It is caused by ischemia or injury to the anterior spinal artery territory.

Question 5366

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping that worsens with standing and walking but improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. He is being evaluated for lumbar spinal stenosis. Which of the following differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain improvement with standing completely still
. Decreased pedal pulses
. Proximal to distal pain progression
. Pain exacerbated by riding a stationary bicycle
. Pain relief when walking uphill

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain relief when walking uphill


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is typically relieved by lumbar flexion, such as walking uphill or riding a bicycle, because flexion increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Vascular claudication is exacerbated by any exertion (including walking uphill) and is quickly relieved by simply standing still.

Question 5367

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male falls from a height and sustains a burst fracture of L1. His neurologic examination is completely normal. The Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score is calculated to be 2. What is the most appropriate management?

. Short-segment posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Thoracolumbar orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
. Long-segment posterior instrumentation
. Laminectomy and pedicle screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbar orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization


Explanation

According to the TLICS system, a score of 3 or less indicates non-operative management. A score of 4 is a grey area (surgeon preference), and a score of 5 or more indicates surgical intervention. Therefore, bracing and early mobilization is the correct treatment for a TLICS score of 2.

Question 5368

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old female underwent a posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis extending down to L5 when she was a teenager. She now presents with severe lower back pain and radicular symptoms. Radiographs demonstrate advanced degenerative disc disease, facet arthropathy, and listhesis at the L5-S1 level. What is this specific phenomenon termed?

. Pseudarthrosis
. Adjacent segment disease
. Proximal junctional kyphosis
. Crankshaft phenomenon
. Flatback syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adjacent segment disease


Explanation

Adjacent segment disease (ASD) refers to the development of new degenerative changes at the mobile segment immediately above or below a spinal fusion. Stopping a long fusion at L5 significantly increases the biomechanical stress on the L5-S1 disc, frequently leading to premature ASD.

Question 5369

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis sustains a minor fall at home. He presents with new-onset neck pain and bilateral hand tingling. Initial AP and lateral plain radiographs of the cervical spine are interpreted as "normal" with expected autofusion.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Reassurance and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
. Discharge with a hard cervical collar and out-patient follow up
. Immediate CT or MRI of the entire cervical spine
. Dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Electromyography (EMG) of the upper extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate CT or MRI of the entire cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at extremely high risk for occult, highly unstable spinal fractures (often transdiscal or through the fused segments) even from low-energy trauma. Normal plain films do not rule out a fracture; advanced imaging (CT or MRI) is mandatory when they are symptomatic.

Question 5370

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 28-year-old male is diagnosed with an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis (Meyerding Grade II). He has failed 6 months of conservative therapy and continues to have axial back pain and bilateral L5 radiculopathy. What is the underlying anatomical defect characterizing this specific condition?

. Degeneration and subluxation of the facet joints
. Elongation of the pars interarticularis without fracture
. A defect or stress fracture in the pars interarticularis
. Congenital absence of the pedicle
. Dysplasia of the superior articular process of the sacrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A defect or stress fracture in the pars interarticularis


Explanation

Isthmic spondylolisthesis (Type II in the Wiltse classification) is characterized by a structural defect, typically a stress fracture or nonunion (spondylolysis), in the pars interarticularis. This allows the anterior column to slip forward while the posterior elements remain behind.

Question 5371

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior approach to the cervical spine for a C5-C6 discectomy, the surgeon must elevate the longus colli muscles. Care must be taken to avoid aggressive lateral dissection over the anterior surface of the longus colli to prevent injury to which of the following structures?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Carotid artery
. Sympathetic chain
. Vertebral artery
. Vagus nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sympathetic chain


Explanation

The cervical sympathetic chain runs vertically over the longus colli muscles, slightly lateral to the midline. Aggressive dissection or placement of retractor blades too laterally over the longus colli can compress or injure the sympathetic trunk, resulting in Horner's syndrome.

Question 5372

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis sustains a minor fall. He complains of new-onset neck pain but is neurologically intact. Radiographs reveal a transverse fracture through the C5-C6 disc space extending through the posterior elements. What is the most appropriate management?

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior cervical plating alone
. Long-segment posterior cervical instrumentation and fusion
. Dynamic cervical orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long-segment posterior cervical instrumentation and fusion


Explanation

Spine fractures in ankylosing spondylitis are typically highly unstable, three-column injuries. Due to the long lever arms of the fused spine, they require long-segment posterior instrumentation and fusion; halo immobilization has unacceptably high morbidity and complication rates in these patients.

Question 5373

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound, isolated weakness of his bilateral deltoids and biceps (0/5) with preserved lower extremity function. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Expanding postoperative epidural hematoma
. Spinal cord ischemia secondary to hypotension
. C5 nerve root tethering from posterior cord shift
. Inadvertent intraoperative durotomy
. Reperfusion injury of the spinal cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 nerve root tethering from posterior cord shift


Explanation

C5 nerve root palsy is a well-known complication after multilevel cervical laminectomy and fusion. It is typically a motor-only deficit peaking 2 to 3 days postoperatively, caused by posterior shifting of the spinal cord and subsequent tethering of the short C5 nerve roots.

Question 5374

Topic: Cervical Spine

A surgeon plans to use recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) off-label during an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). The patient should be counseled about a significantly increased risk of which of the following complications compared to autograft?

. Pseudarthrosis at the surgical levels
. Postoperative Horner syndrome
. Dysphagia and prevertebral soft tissue swelling
. Iatrogenic C5 palsy
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve transection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dysphagia and prevertebral soft tissue swelling


Explanation

The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is associated with a profound, dose-dependent inflammatory response leading to severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling. This significantly increases the risk of life-threatening airway compromise and persistent dysphagia.

Question 5375

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 30-year-old neurologically intact male presents after a motor vehicle collision. CT imaging demonstrates a burst fracture of L1 with 40% loss of vertebral body height and 15 degrees of local kyphosis. MRI confirms the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is completely intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?

. Nonoperative management with a TLSO brace
. Posterior short-segment pedicle screw fixation
. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting
. Laminectomy and posterior uninstrumented fusion
. Combined anterior-posterior instrumented fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonoperative management with a TLSO brace


Explanation

This injury scores a 2 on the TLICS system (Morphology: Burst = 2, Neurologic status: Intact = 0, PLC status: Intact = 0). A total TLICS score of 3 or less is a strong indication for nonoperative management with bracing.

Question 5376

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In planning corrective surgery for a 62-year-old female with severe adult spinal deformity, achieving optimal sagittal balance is critical. According to the SRS-Schwab classification guidelines, what is the surgical target for the mismatch between pelvic incidence (PI) and lumbar lordosis (LL)?

. PI minus LL should be less than or equal to 10 degrees
. PI minus LL should be exactly 20 degrees
. LL should be greater than PI by at least 15 degrees
. PI should be equal to pelvic tilt (PT)
. PI minus LL should equal sacral slope (SS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI minus LL should be less than or equal to 10 degrees


Explanation

To optimize sagittal alignment, minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease, and prevent hardware failure, the surgical goal is to achieve a PI-LL mismatch of less than or equal to 10 degrees.

Question 5377

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old female presents with severe low back pain, radicular leg symptoms, and a waddling gait. Imaging reveals a Meyerding Grade IV isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 with a slip angle of 55 degrees. After failed conservative management, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Pars interarticularis repair with bone grafting
. In situ posterolateral uninstrumented fusion
. L5 laminectomy without fusion
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion without posterior fixation
. Instrumented L5-S1 fusion with reduction or partial reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Instrumented L5-S1 fusion with reduction or partial reduction


Explanation

High-grade (Meyerding Grade III-V) dysplastic or isthmic spondylolisthesis with a high slip angle requires robust stabilization. Instrumented fusion with partial or complete reduction is necessary to restore global sagittal balance and minimize the risk of pseudarthrosis and slip progression.

Question 5378

Topic: 6. Spine

A 52-year-old diabetic male presents with 3 weeks of progressively worsening back pain, low-grade fevers, and new-onset bilateral iliopsoas weakness (3/5). MRI with contrast reveals an extensive anterior epidural abscess from L2-L4 causing severe compression of the thecal sac. The patient is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. CT-guided aspiration and targeted IV antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Immediate initiation of broad-spectrum IV antibiotics without surgery
. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement
. Intravenous corticosteroids and rigid bracing
. Serial MRI imaging every 48 hours to monitor compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement


Explanation

In the setting of a spinal epidural abscess, the presence of progressive or new neurological deficits (such as motor weakness) is an absolute indication for urgent surgical decompression and debridement to prevent irreversible paralysis.

Question 5379

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old male with known cervical spondylosis falls forward, striking his chin. He presents with severe upper extremity weakness, particularly in his hands, but can ambulate with a walker. Sensation to pinprick and temperature is diminished in a cape-like distribution over his shoulders. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of his spinal cord injury?

. Complete transection of the lateral spinothalamic tracts
. Ischemia secondary to acute anterior spinal artery occlusion
. Hyperflexion causing traumatic disc herniation into the dorsal columns
. Hyperextension causing the spinal cord to be pinched by a buckling ligamentum flavum
. Bilateral facet dislocation producing focal anterior cord compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension causing the spinal cord to be pinched by a buckling ligamentum flavum


Explanation

This patient has classic central cord syndrome. It most commonly occurs in elderly patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis who sustain a hyperextension injury, compressing the spinal cord between anterior osteophytes and a posteriorly buckling ligamentum flavum.

Question 5380

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe right-sided radicular leg pain, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 disc herniation compressing the cauda equina. Which timeline for surgical decompression is supported by current literature to maximize the potential for urological and neurological recovery?

. Decompression within 48 hours of symptom onset
. Only if decompression is performed within 6 hours of symptom onset
. Decompression within 72 to 96 hours provides equivalent recovery
. Timing does not significantly alter long-term bladder function recovery
. Decompression only after a 24-hour trial of epidural corticosteroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decompression within 48 hours of symptom onset


Explanation

Current clinical evidence strongly indicates that surgical decompression for cauda equina syndrome performed within 48 hours of symptom onset provides significantly better clinical outcomes for motor, sensory, and urologic function compared to delayed surgery.