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Question 5301

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old man is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing only a lap seatbelt. He complains of severe back pain. CT of the lumbar spine reveals a fracture line extending horizontally through the spinous process, pedicles, and posterior vertebral body of L2. What associated injury must be actively ruled out?

. Aortic dissection
. Gastrointestinal hollow viscus injury
. Renal pedicle avulsion
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Pelvic ring disruption

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gastrointestinal hollow viscus injury


Explanation

A Chance fracture is a flexion-distraction injury often associated with lap seatbelt use. It has a high association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries like small bowel perforation.

Question 5302

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old intravenous drug user presents with progressive back pain, fever, and new-onset lower extremity weakness and urinary retention. His ESR and CRP are markedly elevated. MRI with gadolinium shows a large, peripherally enhancing fluid collection in the dorsal epidural space at T8-T10 compressing the spinal cord. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. CT-guided needle aspiration and 6 weeks of IV antibiotics
. Urgent posterior decompressive laminectomy and debridement
. Intravenous steroids followed by MRI in 24 hours
. Empiric IV antibiotics and observation
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent posterior decompressive laminectomy and debridement


Explanation

This patient has a spinal epidural abscess with acute neurologic deficit (weakness, urinary retention). Urgent surgical decompression (laminectomy and evacuation) is indicated to reverse or prevent permanent neurologic compromise.

Question 5303

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old boy presents with a prominent mid-thoracic hump and back pain. Standing lateral radiographs reveal a thoracic kyphosis of 65 degrees. There is anterior wedging of 8 degrees at three consecutive vertebrae, and Schmorl's nodes are visible. He has 1 year of remaining skeletal growth. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Posterior spinal fusion T2-L2
. Physical therapy and NSAIDs
. Milwaukee brace (extension orthosis)
. Anterior release and posterior spinal fusion
. Observation with annual radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Milwaukee brace (extension orthosis)


Explanation

The patient meets the criteria for Scheuermann's disease. Because he has remaining growth and a curve between 50-75 degrees, bracing (Milwaukee or TLSO) is the most appropriate treatment to halt curve progression.

Question 5304

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man undergoes a posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion from C3-C6 for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Postoperatively on day 1, he develops new-onset weakness in the deltoid and biceps (1/5) bilaterally, with intact sensation and no lower extremity changes. What is the most likely etiology?

. Epidural hematoma
. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury
. C5 nerve root palsy
. Graft subsidence
. Vertebral artery injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 nerve root palsy


Explanation

C5 palsy is a known complication of cervical decompression, occurring in up to 5-10% of cases, primarily due to nerve root tethering or reperfusion injury. It generally presents with motor weakness of the deltoid and biceps and has a good prognosis for spontaneous recovery.

Question 5305

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old man is brought to the ED after a motor vehicle collision. He is obtunded and intubated. Radiographs reveal a C5-C6 unilateral facet dislocation. What is the next best step in management?

. Immediate closed reduction with cranial tongs
. MRI of the cervical spine
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Posterior open reduction and fusion
. Application of a halo vest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the cervical spine


Explanation

In an unexaminable or obtunded patient with a cervical facet dislocation, an MRI must be obtained prior to any reduction maneuvers. This is critical to evaluate for a herniated disc that could cause severe neurologic deterioration during reduction.

Question 5306

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old woman with a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis presents with neck pain and mild myelopathy. Radiographs demonstrate atlantoaxial instability. Which of the following radiographic measurements is the most reliable indicator of potential neurological compromise requiring surgical stabilization?

. Anterior atlantodens interval (ADI) of 4 mm
. Posterior atlantodens interval (PADI) of 13 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination with odontoid 2 mm above Chamberlain's line
. C2-C7 sagittal plumb line of 3 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodens interval (PADI) of 13 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlantodens Interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic deficit in rheumatoid arthritis. A PADI of less than 14 mm is generally an absolute indication for surgical stabilization.

Question 5307

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe back pain and bilateral lower extremity weakness after a fall from a height. A CT scan shows an L1 burst fracture with 60% canal compromise. Examination reveals intact perianal sensation, but decreased rectal tone and urinary retention. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) for 12 weeks
. Immediate high-dose methylprednisolone
. Urgent surgical decompression and stabilization
. Bed rest for 6 weeks
. Epidural steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical decompression and stabilization


Explanation

The patient exhibits signs of cauda equina syndrome, giving him a high Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score. A TLICS score > 4, driven heavily by an incomplete neurological deficit, is a strong indication for urgent surgical decompression and stabilization.

Question 5308

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old construction worker presents with back pain after lifting a heavy beam. He reports pain radiating down the lateral aspect of his left leg to the dorsum of his foot, along with weakness in great toe extension. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

Weakness in the extensor hallucis longus (great toe extension) and pain radiating to the dorsum of the foot are classic clinical signs of an L5 radiculopathy. This is most commonly caused by a paracentral L4-L5 disc herniation.

Question 5309

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. A CT scan of the cervical spine reveals a fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 bilaterally, with severe angulation and anterior translation of C2 on C3. The C2-C3 disc space is widened anteriorly. Which of the following treatments is absolutely contraindicated?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Posterior C1-C3 fusion
. Halo vest immobilization
. Cervical traction
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the pars

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical traction


Explanation

This presentation describes a Type IIA Hangman's fracture, which involves severe angulation secondary to a flexion-distraction injury mechanism. Cervical traction is strictly contraindicated as it can cause catastrophic over-distraction and subsequent spinal cord injury.

Question 5310

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents with 2 weeks of worsening back pain, fevers, and a recent onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness. Laboratory studies show elevated ESR and CRP. An MRI with contrast demonstrates an epidural fluid collection at L3-L4 with peripheral enhancement. What is the next best step in management?

. CT-guided aspiration of the disc space
. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement
. Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Oral antibiotics and TLSO bracing
. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement


Explanation

The patient has a spinal epidural abscess with progressive, acute neurological deficits. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement are required to prevent irreversible neurological damage, followed by targeted antibiotic therapy.

Question 5311

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. Her primary curve is a right thoracic curve of 55 degrees. When discussing surgical intervention with pedicle screw instrumentation, what is the most critical potential complication associated with a medial pedicle wall breach in the thoracic spine?

. Aortic injury
. Spinal cord injury
. Lung entrapment
. Esophageal perforation
. Chylothorax

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal cord injury


Explanation

A medial pedicle screw breach in the thoracic spine directly enters the spinal canal, placing the spinal cord at high risk for direct mechanical injury. Conversely, lateral breaches risk injury to the pleura, lungs, or great vessels.

Question 5312

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe back pain after a low-energy fall. CT imaging demonstrates a displaced transvertebral fracture through T10. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

. TLSO brace and early mobilization
. Posterior instrumented fusion 3 levels above and below
. Anterior-only instrumented fusion
. Observation with pain management
. Percutaneous vertebroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior instrumented fusion 3 levels above and below


Explanation

Spinal fractures in ankylosing spondylitis are highly unstable due to the rigid spine acting as a long lever arm. Long-segment posterior instrumented fusion is required to prevent displacement and pseudoarthrosis.

Question 5313

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old woman with severe COPD and heart failure falls and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of displacement. What is the most appropriate initial management considering her comorbidities?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In frail elderly patients with significant medical comorbidities, halo vest immobilization carries a high mortality and complication rate. A rigid cervical collar is the preferred initial management despite a higher risk of nonunion.

Question 5314

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old diabetic man presents with progressive bilateral leg weakness, urinary retention, and fever over the last 24 hours. MRI reveals a dorsal epidural abscess from T8 to T10 with severe spinal cord compression. What is the most urgent and appropriate intervention?

. CT-guided aspiration and intravenous antibiotics
. Intravenous antibiotics alone
. Anterior corpectomy and decompression
. Posterior laminectomy and evacuation
. Placement of a lumbar drain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior laminectomy and evacuation


Explanation

Rapid neurological decline secondary to a dorsal spinal epidural abscess is a surgical emergency. Posterior laminectomy with abscess evacuation provides immediate decompression of the spinal cord.

Question 5315

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 30-year-old man falls from a roof and sustains a T12 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact, and MRI confirms an intact posterior ligamentous complex. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is his score and recommended management?

. Score 2, Non-operative management
. Score 4, Operative management
. Score 5, Operative management
. Score 3, Non-operative management
. Score 7, Operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 2, Non-operative management


Explanation

The TLICS score assigns 2 points for a burst fracture, 0 points for intact neurology, and 0 points for an intact PLC. A total score of 2 is an indication for non-operative management.

Question 5316

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following findings is considered the most sensitive early clinical indicator for diagnosing Cauda Equina Syndrome?

. Lower extremity motor weakness
. Urinary retention
. Loss of anal sphincter tone
. Saddle anesthesia
. Absent ankle reflexes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention


Explanation

Urinary retention, often assessed by measuring post-void residual volume, is the most sensitive early clinical sign of Cauda Equina Syndrome. It typically precedes true incontinence, saddle anesthesia, and severe motor deficits.

Question 5317

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive hand clumsiness, frequent falls, and a positive Hoffman's sign. MRI reveals multilevel cervical stenosis from C3-C6 with cord signal changes. Lateral radiographs show a neutral cervical sagittal alignment without instability. Which surgical approach is most appropriate?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) C3-C6
. Cervical laminectomy and fusion C3-C6
. Cervical laminoplasty C3-C6
. Anterior corpectomies at C4 and C5
. Posterior cervical foraminotomies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical laminoplasty C3-C6


Explanation

Cervical laminoplasty is ideal for multilevel spondylotic myelopathy in patients with neutral or lordotic alignment and no significant instability or severe axial neck pain. It indirectly decompresses the cord while preserving motion.

Question 5318

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man undergoes a 10-hour posterior spinal fusion for severe adult scoliosis. Upon awakening, he complains of bilateral painless vision loss, and his pupils are sluggish to react. What is the most likely etiology of his vision loss?

. Central retinal artery occlusion
. Ischemic optic neuropathy
. Cortical blindness
. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
. Corneal abrasion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischemic optic neuropathy


Explanation

Ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common cause of perioperative vision loss after prolonged spine surgery in the prone position. Risk factors include significant blood loss, prolonged hypotension, and long operative times.

Question 5319

Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. Imaging reveals a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis with bilateral C2 pars fractures, severe angulation, >5 mm translation, and bilateral C2-C3 facet dislocations. Based on the Levine-Edwards classification, what is the injury type and optimal treatment?
. Type I, Rigid collar
. Type II, Halo vest
. Type IIa, Anterior C2-3 fusion
. Type III, Open reduction and internal fixation
. Type I, Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type III, Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

This describes a Levine-Edwards Type III Hangman's fracture, characterized by C2 pars fractures with bilateral C2-C3 facet dislocations. It is highly unstable and requires open reduction and surgical stabilization.

Question 5320

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 20-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after sustaining a C5 burst fracture resulting in complete quadriplegia. He is noted to have a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg, a heart rate of 50 bpm, and warm, flushed extremities. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism for his hemodynamic state?

. Loss of sympathetic tone from the T1-L2 level
. Massive concealed acute blood loss
. Loss of somatic reflex arcs below the injury
. Cardiac tamponade causing obstructive shock
. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of sympathetic tone from the T1-L2 level


Explanation

The patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, caused by the loss of sympathetic outflow originating from T1-L2. This results in unopposed vagal tone, leading to the classic presentation of hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.