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Question 5201

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old woman is planning to undergo corrective surgery for a symptomatic adult spinal deformity. Her preoperative radiographs demonstrate a pelvic incidence (PI) of 60 degrees. To achieve optimal spino-pelvic alignment and minimize adjacent segment disease, the target postoperative lumbar lordosis (LL) should be within how many degrees of her PI?

. +/- 5 degrees
. +/- 10 degrees
. +/- 15 degrees
. +/- 20 degrees
. +/- 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. +/- 10 degrees


Explanation

The SRS-Schwab adult spinal deformity classification emphasizes that lumbar lordosis (LL) should match pelvic incidence (PI) within 10 degrees (PI-LL < 10 degrees). Achieving this alignment correlates with improved functional outcomes and decreased mechanical complications.

Question 5202

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis presents after a minor motor vehicle collision. A non-contrast CT shows a highly displaced fracture through the C5-C6 disc space extending through the posterior elements.

Which of the following is the most significant acute risk associated with patient positioning and transport?

. Exacerbation of anterior uveitis
. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury
. Aortic dissection
. Esophageal rupture
. Vertebral artery dissection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury


Explanation

The ankylosed spine fractures like a long bone, rendering it extremely unstable. Minimal movement or hyperextension during transport can easily cause a catastrophic iatrogenic spinal cord injury or epidural hematoma.

Question 5203

Topic: 6. Spine

A 58-year-old female with breast cancer presents with back pain. MRI shows a lytic metastasis at T8. According to the Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS), which of the following clinical or radiographic features contributes most strongly to a higher score (indicating instability)?

. Pain improved with recumbency (mechanical pain)
. Osteoblastic nature of the lesion
. Location in the rigid upper thoracic spine
. Involvement of less than 25% of the vertebral body
. Intact posterior elements

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain improved with recumbency (mechanical pain)


Explanation

Mechanical pain (pain exacerbated by movement and relieved by recumbency) receives 3 points on the SINS scale and is a primary clinical indicator of impending spinal instability. Osteoblastic lesions and rigid locations score lower.

Question 5204

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man with severe cervical spondylosis falls and strikes his chin. He develops bilateral upper extremity weakness that is far worse than his lower extremity weakness. Which spinal tract is predominantly responsible for this disproportionate motor deficit?

. Anterior spinothalamic tract
. Dorsal columns
. Lateral corticospinal tract
. Rubrospinal tract
. Vestibulospinal tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral corticospinal tract


Explanation

Central cord syndrome preferentially damages the medial aspect of the lateral corticospinal tracts. Because the motor fibers for the upper extremities are located medially relative to the lower extremity fibers, patients exhibit disproportionate upper extremity weakness.

Question 5205

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male presents with severe myelopathy. Imaging reveals dense ossification along the posterior margin of the C3-C6 vertebral bodies, consistent with OPLL.

If an anterior surgical approach (corpectomy) is selected, what is the most common and feared intraoperative complication specific to this pathology?

. Vertebral artery injury
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
. Dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Esophageal perforation
. Horner syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leak


Explanation

The ossified posterior longitudinal ligament often adheres directly to or incorporates the dura mater. Consequently, anterior resection carries a very high risk of dural tears and subsequent CSF leakage.

Question 5206

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man reports bilateral calf pain after walking two blocks. The pain is rapidly relieved when he leans forward on a shopping cart. Which of the following findings most reliably differentiates this neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain relief with standing perfectly still
. Absent lower extremity pulses
. Pain alleviation with lumbar flexion
. Pain starting in the buttocks and radiating distally
. Presence of rest pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain alleviation with lumbar flexion


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is characteristically relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., leaning forward, sitting), which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Vascular claudication is typically relieved simply by resting or standing still.

Question 5207

Topic: 6. Spine

A 24-year-old man presents after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Radiographs demonstrate a Type II traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture).

What is the classic mechanism of injury for the initial pars interarticularis fracture in this scenario?

. Axial loading and hyperflexion
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Hyperextension and distraction
. Flexion and distraction
. Lateral bending

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

In motor vehicle accidents, the classic mechanism for a Hangman's fracture is hyperextension combined with axial loading. This differs from judicial hanging, which involves hyperextension and massive distraction.

Question 5208

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old construction worker sustains an L1 fracture with 50% canal compromise and 25 degrees of kyphosis after a fall. Neurologic exam is normal. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, how many points are assigned specifically for the burst morphology of this fracture?

. 1 point
. 2 points
. 3 points
. 4 points
. 5 points

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 points


Explanation

Under the TLICS system, fracture morphology is scored as follows: compression = 1 point, burst = 2 points, translation/rotation = 3 points, and distraction = 4 points. Therefore, a burst fracture morphology contributes 2 points.

Question 5209

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old woman presents with sudden onset severe low back pain, bilateral sciatica, perineal numbness, and difficulty initiating micturition (post-void residual is 350 mL). MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. What is the most appropriate management?

. Intravenous dexamethasone and observation
. Epidural steroid injection
. Emergent surgical decompression within 24-48 hours
. Scheduled surgical decompression in 1-2 weeks
. Urodynamic studies to confirm neurogenic bladder

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent surgical decompression within 24-48 hours


Explanation

This patient has incomplete cauda equina syndrome (CES-I), which is an absolute surgical emergency. Emergent surgical decompression, ideally within 24 to 48 hours, is required to prevent permanent sphincter dysfunction and paralysis.

Question 5210

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old boy presents with a progressive thoracic kyphosis of 55 degrees. Imaging is evaluated for Scheuermann's kyphosis.

To meet the classic Sorensen criteria, what is the minimum degree of anterior wedging required in each of three consecutive vertebrae?

. 3 degrees
. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees
. 20 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 degrees


Explanation

The Sorensen criteria for diagnosing Scheuermann's disease require anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in 3 or more consecutive vertebrae. This is accompanied by an overall thoracic kyphosis typically greater than 45 degrees.

Question 5211

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 48-year-old woman undergoes a right-sided C5-C6 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). Postoperatively, she exhibits significant hoarseness and a weak voice. Laryngoscopy confirms unilateral vocal cord paralysis. Injury to which of the following structures is responsible?

. Vagus nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Sympathetic trunk
. Phrenic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the majority of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx. Injury to this nerve during an ACDF results in true vocal cord paralysis, manifesting clinically as severe hoarseness and a breathy voice.

Question 5212

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive gait clumsiness and deteriorating hand dexterity. Examination reveals a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities, but diminished biceps reflexes bilaterally. What is the most likely location of the primary pathology?

. C3-C4
. C5-C6
. C7-T1
. T1-T2
. Lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

Diminished biceps reflexes represent a lower motor neuron sign at the level of compression, while hyperreflexia below this level represents an upper motor neuron sign. This combination is classic for C5-C6 cervical spondylotic myelopathy.

Question 5213

Topic: Cervical Spine



An 82-year-old woman falls and presents with neck pain. The radiograph shows a displaced Type II odontoid fracture. She has significant medical comorbidities (Charlson Comorbidity Index of 6) and no neurologic deficit. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Hard cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hard cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients with severe medical comorbidities, a rigid cervical collar is the preferred initial treatment for Type II odontoid fractures. This is due to the high morbidity and mortality associated with halo vests and surgical intervention in this specific demographic.

Question 5214

Topic: 6. Spine

A 54-year-old intravenous drug user presents with severe lower back pain, a low-grade fever, and new-onset urinary retention. What is the most sensitive imaging modality and expected elevated laboratory marker to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

. CT scan with contrast and elevated WBC
. MRI with gadolinium and elevated CRP
. Plain radiographs and elevated ESR
. MRI without contrast and elevated WBC
. Bone scan and elevated CRP

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI with gadolinium and elevated CRP


Explanation

MRI with gadolinium is the gold standard for diagnosing a spinal epidural abscess. CRP and ESR are highly sensitive inflammatory markers for spinal infections, whereas WBC counts are often falsely normal.

Question 5215

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man complains of bilateral calf pain and heaviness that occurs after walking two blocks. Which of the following historical factors is most specific for neurogenic claudication rather than vascular claudication?

. Pain is relieved by standing still
. Pain is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart
. Pain occurs at a consistent, predictable distance
. Pain begins in the buttocks and radiates distally
. Diminished dorsalis pedis pulses

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart


Explanation

Pain relief with lumbar flexion (sitting or the "shopping cart sign") increases the spinal canal area and is highly characteristic of neurogenic claudication. Vascular claudication is typically relieved simply by resting in a standing position.

Question 5216

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity



A 15-year-old male gymnast presents with mechanical low back pain. Radiographs reveal a Grade 1 slip at L5-S1. What is the anatomic location of the defect causing this specific type of spondylolisthesis?

. Pedicle
. Pars interarticularis
. Facet joint
. Lamina
. Spinous process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pars interarticularis


Explanation

Isthmic spondylolisthesis (Wiltse Type II) is caused by a defect or stress fracture in the pars interarticularis. It is most commonly seen in young athletes who undergo repetitive lumbar hyperextension.

Question 5217

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man with known cervical spondylosis sustains a hyperextension injury in a motor vehicle accident. He presents with 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. What spinal cord injury syndrome does this represent?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically occurs after hyperextension injuries in patients with pre-existing cervical stenosis. It presents with disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.

Question 5218

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

When evaluating an adult patient for spinal deformity correction, achieving spinopelvic harmony is a primary goal. To minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease and mechanical failure, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should ideally be matched to within 10 degrees of which specific pelvic parameter?

. Pelvic tilt (PT)
. Sacral slope (SS)
. Pelvic incidence (PI)
. Sagittal vertical axis (SVA)
. T1 pelvic angle (TPA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic incidence (PI)


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter unique to each individual. Achieving a PI-LL mismatch of less than 10 degrees is a critical goal in adult spinal deformity surgery to restore proper sagittal balance.

Question 5219

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral lower extremity weakness following a heavy lifting event. What is the most consistent early clinical finding in cauda equina syndrome?

. Patellar reflex absence
. Fecal incontinence
. Urinary retention with overflow incontinence
. Bilateral foot drop
. Unilateral radicular pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention with overflow incontinence


Explanation

Urinary retention resulting in overflow incontinence is the most consistent and highly sensitive finding in established cauda equina syndrome. This presentation warrants urgent surgical decompression.

Question 5220

Topic: 6. Spine
A 34-year-old man is involved in a high-speed MVC. Imaging shows a bilateral pars interarticularis fracture of C2 with >3 mm of translation and severe angulation. This represents a Levine-Edwards Type II fracture. What is the primary mechanism of injury for this fracture pattern?
. Axial loading
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Hyperextension and rebound flexion
. Hyperflexion and compression
. Lateral bending

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and rebound flexion


Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type II Hangman's fracture is characterized by significant translation and angulation. It typically results from initial hyperextension followed by rebound flexion coupled with an axial load.