Menu

Question 501

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with a suspected spinal injury demonstrates a sensory level exactly at the umbilicus.

Which dermatome correlates to this landmark?

. T4
. T6
. T8
. T10
. T12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T10


Explanation

The T10 dermatome reliably corresponds to the level of the umbilicus. This is a critical landmark for rapidly assessing the neurological level of injury in spine trauma.

Question 502

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old male sustains a thoracic spine injury.

Radiographs reveal a bony Chance fracture. Which of the following mechanisms of injury is most classically associated with this fracture pattern?

. Axial loading
. Hyperextension
. Flexion-distraction
. Lateral compression
. Rotational shear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion-distraction


Explanation

A Chance fracture is a flexion-distraction injury often seen in seatbelt restrained passengers during motor vehicle collisions. It typically involves tension failure of the posterior and middle columns, with the axis of rotation acting anterior to the vertebral body.

Question 503

Topic: 6. Spine

In a patient presenting with a traumatic spinal cord injury, the physical examination demonstrates a sensory level isolated to the nipple line. Which of the following dermatomal nerve root levels corresponds directly to this finding?

. C8
. T2
. T4
. T6
. T10

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T4


Explanation

The sensory level for the nipple line corresponds to the T4 dermatome. Other key landmarks include the xiphoid process (T6) and the umbilicus (T10).

Question 504

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with a history of severe cervical spondylosis falls forward, striking his chin. He presents with severe weakness in his upper extremities but is able to move his lower extremities against gravity. What is the pathophysiological mechanism responsible for this specific neurological pattern?

. Hemisection of the spinal cord
. Infarction of the anterior spinal artery
. Hyperextension causing central gray matter damage
. Avulsion of the brachial plexus roots
. Compression of the cauda equina

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension causing central gray matter damage


Explanation

This describes central cord syndrome, classically caused by hyperextension injuries in patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. The centrally located cervical tracts supplying the upper extremities are damaged more severely than the peripherally located sacral/lumbar tracts.

Question 505

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old female presents with severe myelopathy and imaging confirms a large, central, calcified disc herniation at the T8-T9 level. Which of the following surgical approaches is explicitly contraindicated due to a high risk of iatrogenic neurological deterioration?

. Costotransversectomy
. Transthoracic approach
. Transpedicular approach
. Standard posterior laminectomy
. Lateral extracavitary approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standard posterior laminectomy


Explanation

Standard posterior laminectomy is contraindicated for central calcified thoracic disc herniations. It requires excessive retraction of the spinal cord to access the anteriorly located disc, resulting in a high risk of paraplegia.

Question 506

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old male sustains a severe spinal cord injury. On examination, he has flaccid paralysis, absent reflexes below the level of injury, and absent perianal sensation. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. This clinical picture most accurately represents:

. Neurogenic shock
. Spinal shock
. Autonomic dysreflexia
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal shock


Explanation

Spinal shock is characterized by temporary loss of all spinal reflexes and muscle tone below the level of injury. The return of the bulbocavernosus reflex clinically marks the end of the spinal shock phase.

Question 507

Topic: 6. Spine

A trauma patient presents with a cervical spine injury.

Imaging reveals bilateral fractures through the pars interarticularis of C2. Which of the following is the primary mechanism resulting in this specific injury?

. Flexion and distraction
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Lateral bending
. Rotational shear
. Hyperflexion and axial loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture (traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis) involves bilateral fractures of the C2 pars interarticularis. The classic mechanism is hyperextension combined with axial loading, as seen in motor vehicle accidents or judicial hangings.

Question 508

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following associated injuries has the highest incidence in patients diagnosed with a bony Chance fracture of the thoracolumbar junction?

. Aortic dissection
. Hollow viscus intestinal injuries
. Renal artery avulsion
. Splenic rupture
. Diaphragmatic hernia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus intestinal injuries


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are highly associated with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries (e.g., bowel ruptures). A high index of suspicion and prompt general surgery evaluation are essential.

Question 509

Topic: Cervical Spine

A patient presents with a traumatic cervical spine injury.

A Type II odontoid fracture is identified. Which of the following factors contributes most significantly to the high nonunion rate of this specific fracture type?

. Excessive motion at the atlanto-occipital joint
. Interruption of the watershed blood supply at the base of the dens
. Interposition of the transverse ligament
. Associated alar ligament rupture
. Poor bone density in the C2 vertebral body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interruption of the watershed blood supply at the base of the dens


Explanation

Type II odontoid fractures occur at the base of the dens, which is a vascular watershed area. The limited blood supply to this region is the primary reason for the high nonunion rate associated with these fractures.

Question 510

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old paraplegic male with a known complete spinal cord injury at T4 suddenly develops severe headache, profuse sweating above the nipple line, and profound hypertension (BP 210/110 mmHg). What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

. Administer intravenous epinephrine
. Place the patient in a supine position and elevate legs
. Check for and relieve a distended bladder or bowel impaction
. Administer high-dose methylprednisolone
. Perform a rapid sequence intubation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Check for and relieve a distended bladder or bowel impaction


Explanation

The patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition occurring in cord lesions at or above T6. It is triggered by noxious stimuli below the lesion, most commonly a distended bladder or bowel, requiring immediate decompression.

Question 511

Topic: Cervical Spine

A cervical radiograph of a trauma patient demonstrates anterior translation of C5 over C6 by approximately 25% of the vertebral body width.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Unilateral facet dislocation
. Bilateral facet dislocation
. Clay Shoveler's fracture
. Jefferson fracture
. Hangman's fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unilateral facet dislocation


Explanation

A unilateral facet dislocation typically results in anterior translation of the involved vertebral body by approximately 25% (up to 50%) of its anteroposterior width. Bilateral facet dislocations usually demonstrate 50% or greater translation.

Question 512

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the ASIA (American Spinal Injury Association) Impairment Scale, a patient who has preserved motor function below the neurological level, with more than half of the key muscles demonstrating a muscle grade less than 3, is classified as:

. ASIA A
. ASIA B
. ASIA C
. ASIA D
. ASIA E

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ASIA C


Explanation

ASIA C denotes an incomplete motor injury where motor function is preserved below the neurological level, but more than half of the key muscles below that level have a muscle grade of less than 3. ASIA D requires at least half the key muscles to have a grade of 3 or greater.

Question 513

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following clinical findings best differentiates a Conus Medullaris syndrome from a Cauda Equina syndrome?

. Severe, radicular, asymmetrical leg pain
. Strict lower motor neuron findings in the lower extremities
. Late onset of bowel and bladder dysfunction
. Presence of mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs
. Areflexic flaccid paralysis of the lower limbs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs


Explanation

Conus medullaris syndrome typically presents with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs and early bowel/bladder dysfunction due to involvement of the sacral cord segments. Cauda equina syndrome involves peripheral nerve roots, causing strict lower motor neuron signs and asymmetric radicular pain.

Question 514

Topic: 6. Spine

During a left-sided transthoracic approach for a T10-T11 disc herniation, the surgeon is cautious of a major radiculomedullary artery that supplies the anterior lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. This artery typically arises from the left side between which spinal levels?

. C5 and C8
. T1 and T4
. T5 and T8
. T9 and L2
. L3 and S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T9 and L2


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz is the largest anterior radiculomedullary artery. It most commonly arises on the left side from an intercostal or lumbar artery between the T9 and L2 levels, providing critical blood supply to the lower spinal cord.

Question 515

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with long-standing Ankylosing Spondylitis sustains a minor ground-level fall and complains of back pain. Which of the following statements regarding spinal fractures in this patient population is most accurate?

. They are typically stable and can be managed with a simple corset
. They rarely involve the posterior elements
. They act like long-bone fractures and are highly unstable
. Epidural hematoma is an extremely rare complication
. They most commonly occur through the pars interarticularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. They act like long-bone fractures and are highly unstable


Explanation

The ankylosed spine is osteopenic and rigid, making it highly susceptible to fracture even from minor trauma. These fractures behave mechanically like long-bone fractures, often traversing all three columns, are highly unstable, and carry a high risk of epidural hematoma and neurological deficit.

Question 516

Topic: 6. Spine

A Jefferson fracture is defined as a burst fracture of the C1 ring. If the sum of the lateral mass displacement over the C2 articular facets on an open-mouth odontoid radiograph exceeds 7 mm, which critical structure is presumed completely disrupted?

. Alar ligament
. Transverse atlantal ligament
. Tectorial membrane
. Apical ligament
. Cruciate ligament's superior band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse atlantal ligament


Explanation

The Rule of Spence states that if the combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 is greater than 6.9 mm (often rounded to 7 mm), it implies a complete rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the injury highly unstable.

Question 517

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male sustains a severe flexion-distraction injury to the T12 vertebra in a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following concurrent injuries is most likely to be present and requires urgent evaluation?

. Aortic dissection
. Hollow viscus injury
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Renal artery avulsion
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Flexion-distraction (Chance) injuries of the thoracolumbar spine, particularly from lap seatbelts, have a high association (up to 40-50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, most commonly hollow viscus ruptures.

Question 518

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with a traumatic spinal fracture is noted to have a sensory level localizing to the inguinal ligament. What is the corresponding nerve root level for this dermatome?

. T10
. T12
. L1
. L2
. L3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L1


Explanation

The sensory dermatome for the inguinal ligament corresponds to the L1 nerve root. By comparison, T10 corresponds to the umbilicus and T12 represents the suprapubic region.

Question 519

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication for a standard posterior laminectomy in the surgical management of a central, calcified thoracic disc herniation?

. High risk of dural tear
. Direct mechanical trauma to the spinal cord
. Inability to decompress the foramina adequately
. High rate of postoperative kyphosis
. Significant epidural bleeding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct mechanical trauma to the spinal cord


Explanation

Standard posterior laminectomy is contraindicated for central thoracic disc herniations because retracting the thoracic spinal cord to access an anterior central lesion carries an unacceptably high risk of irreversible cord injury. Anterior or posterolateral approaches are required.

Question 520

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Regarding the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), a patient presents with a T11-T12 burst fracture, indeterminate posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) status on MRI, and intact neurologic function. What is the total TLICS score and the recommended management?

. Score 2, non-operative management
. Score 3, non-operative management
. Score 4, either operative or non-operative
. Score 5, operative management
. Score 6, operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 4, either operative or non-operative


Explanation

TLICS calculates morphology (burst = 2), PLC status (indeterminate = 2), and neurologic status (intact = 0) for a total of 4. A score of 4 means the treatment can be either operative or non-operative based on the surgeon's clinical judgment.