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Question 5121

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe radicular pain radiating down the anterior aspect of his right thigh to the knee, accompanied by weakness in knee extension. An MRI reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L3-L4 far lateral disc herniation compresses the L3 nerve root, presenting with anterior thigh pain and quadriceps weakness.

Question 5122

Topic: 6. Spine

A spinal surgeon is placing L4 pedicle screws for a lumbar fusion. If the right L4 pedicle screw breaches the medial pedicle wall, which neural structure is at greatest immediate risk of injury?

. L3 exiting nerve root
. L4 exiting nerve root
. L4 traversing nerve root
. L5 traversing nerve root
. L5 exiting nerve root

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 traversing nerve root


Explanation

A medial breach of the pedicle puts the traversing nerve root of the level below at risk. At the L4 level, the traversing root is L5. The L4 exiting root passes laterally and inferiorly to the L4 pedicle.

Question 5123

Topic: 6. Spine

During a transforaminal endoscopic lumbar discectomy at L4-L5, the surgeon utilizes Kambin's triangle as a safe working zone. Which of the following forms the anterior border of this anatomical safe zone?

. The exiting L4 nerve root
. The traversing L5 nerve root
. The superior endplate of L5
. The superior articular process of L5
. The inferior articular process of L4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The exiting L4 nerve root


Explanation

Kambin's triangle is bordered anteriorly by the exiting nerve root (L4), inferiorly by the superior endplate of the lower vertebral body (L5), and posteriorly by the superior articular process of the lower vertebra (L5).

Question 5124

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction in a baseball pitcher, understanding elbow biomechanics is crucial. Which anatomical band of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band of the anterior bundle is tight in extension and early flexion, while the posterior band tightens in deeper flexion.

Question 5125

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of insidious onset, mechanical low back pain exacerbated by extension. Plain radiographs of the lumbar spine are normal. What is the preferred next imaging modality to diagnose an early, pre-radiographic pars interarticularis stress reaction while avoiding ionizing radiation?

. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
. Computed Tomography (CT) scan
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine
. Diagnostic ultrasound
. Fluoroscopic stress views

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine


Explanation

MRI is the preferred advanced imaging modality to detect marrow edema associated with an early pars stress reaction (spondylolysis), as it offers excellent sensitivity without exposing the pediatric patient to ionizing radiation.

Question 5126

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports a sudden snap and sharp medial elbow pain during a curveball pitch. Examination reveals marked pain and subjective instability with a moving valgus stress test. Which anatomical structure is most likely acutely injured?

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament.
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament.
. Transverse ligament of the elbow.
. Flexor carpi radialis origin.
. Common extensor tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament.


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is the structure most commonly injured during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.

Question 5127

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. The pain is most severe during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. A moving valgus stress test is positive. Which bundle of the involved ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is the structure most commonly injured in overhead throwing athletes.

Question 5128

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old nonambulatory boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents with a progressive 35-degree scoliosis. His current forced vital capacity (FVC) is 45% of predicted. What is the recommended management of his spinal deformity?

. Full-time TLSO bracing to prevent further progression.
. Observation until the curve exceeds 50 degrees.
. Posterior spinal fusion from the upper thoracic spine to the pelvis.
. Anterior release and fusion followed by casting.
. Implantation of growing rods.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion from the upper thoracic spine to the pelvis.


Explanation

Scoliosis in Duchenne muscular dystrophy progresses rapidly once the child is wheelchair-bound. Posterior spinal fusion to the pelvis is indicated for curves >20-30 degrees while the patient's FVC is still >35%, ensuring they can tolerate the anesthetic and surgery.

Question 5129

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old gymnast presents with persistent low back pain and radiculopathy. Radiographs show a grade II L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of nonoperative management. What is the best surgical option?

. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion
. L5-S1 posterior instrumented fusion in situ
. L4-S1 posterior instrumented fusion with full reduction
. L5 laminectomy alone
. Pars repair with lag screws

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 posterior instrumented fusion in situ


Explanation

For adolescents with a symptomatic low-grade (Grade I or II) isthmic spondylolisthesis that fails conservative management, L5-S1 posterior instrumented fusion in situ is the gold standard. Attempting full reduction in low-grade slips unnecessarily increases the risk of iatrogenic L5 nerve root injury.

Question 5130

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-year-old girl with Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) type 2 presents with progressive neuromuscular scoliosis of 65 degrees. She is currently receiving intrathecal nusinersen treatments. What is a critical technical consideration when planning posterior spinal fusion for this patient?

. Using sublaminar wires exclusively to avoid pedicle fracture
. Leaving a translaminar window open for future intrathecal access
. Extending the fusion only to L4 to preserve lumbar motion
. Avoiding pedicle screws in the entire lumbar spine
. Performing an anterior release first to maximize flexibility

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Leaving a translaminar window open for future intrathecal access


Explanation

Patients with SMA receiving nusinersen require ongoing lifelong intrathecal access for drug delivery. When performing a posterior spinal fusion, leaving an interlaminar window (e.g., at L3-L4) un-fused and free of bone graft is critical to allow for continued administration.

Question 5131

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 6-month-old boy is diagnosed with infantile idiopathic scoliosis. A radiograph reveals a left-sided thoracic curve of 35 degrees. Which of the following parameters is the most important radiographic predictor of curve progression in this patient?

. Apical vertebral rotation of grade 1
. Rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) greater than 20 degrees
. Presence of a compensatory lumbar curve
. Cobb angle magnitude alone
. Risser sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) greater than 20 degrees


Explanation

The Rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD), or Mehta's angle, is the most reliable predictor of progression in infantile idiopathic scoliosis. An RVAD greater than 20 degrees strongly indicates a high likelihood of progressive deformity requiring intervention.

Question 5132

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old non-ambulatory patient with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents with a progressive neuromuscular scoliosis of 75 degrees and a pelvic obliquity of 25 degrees. Surgical correction is planned. What is the most appropriate distal extent of the spinal fusion construct?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. The pelvis (ilium)
. S1 without iliac fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The pelvis (ilium)


Explanation

In non-ambulatory patients with neuromuscular scoliosis and significant pelvic obliquity (typically >15 degrees), extending the spinal fusion to the pelvis is required to achieve and maintain a level pelvis for optimal sitting balance.

Question 5133

Topic: 6. Spine
An 18-month-old girl is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. The parents note no other medical history. What is the most important initial screening study for this patient?
. Whole spine MRI and renal ultrasound
. Pulmonary function tests
. CT scan of the chest
. Genetic testing for neurofibromatosis
. Echocardiogram and brain MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Whole spine MRI and renal ultrasound


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis has a high association with VACTERL anomalies, particularly renal (up to 30%) and intraspinal abnormalities (20-40%). A renal ultrasound and whole spine MRI are essential to rule out these concomitant issues.

Question 5134

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old male gymnast complains of worsening low back pain with radicular symptoms into the L5 distribution. Radiographs reveal a high-grade (Meyerding Grade IV) L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. What is the most common neurologic complication following surgical reduction and instrumented fusion for this condition?

. S1 radiculopathy
. L5 radiculopathy
. Cauda equina syndrome
. Pudendal neuralgia
. Femoral neuropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 radiculopathy


Explanation

The L5 nerve root is highly susceptible to stretch injury during the reduction of severe L5-S1 slips. Consequently, L5 radiculopathy is the most common neurologic complication associated with surgical treatment of high-grade spondylolisthesis.

Question 5135

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with idiopathic infantile scoliosis with a 25-degree left thoracic curve. The rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 30 degrees. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Observation only
. Serial Mehta casting
. Rigid Boston brace
. Magnetically controlled growing rods
. Posterior spinal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serial Mehta casting


Explanation

An RVAD (Mehta angle) greater than 20 degrees is highly predictive of curve progression in infantile idiopathic scoliosis. Early serial casting (Mehta casting) is the gold standard for progressive curves to harness growth for potential correction.

Question 5136

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old male gymnast reports 6 weeks of localized low back pain that worsens with lumbar extension. Neurologic exam is normal. Oblique radiographs show a radiolucency at the pars interarticularis of L5, and a SPECT scan shows intense focal uptake. Initial management should consist of:

. Immediate surgical pars repair
. In situ L5-S1 posterolateral fusion
. Epidural steroid injection
. Activity restriction and antilordotic bracing
. Lumbar microdiscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activity restriction and antilordotic bracing


Explanation

Acute or stress-reactive spondylolysis (indicated by positive SPECT or MRI bone edema) is initially managed nonoperatively with activity modification, core stabilization therapy, and often an antilordotic brace until symptoms resolve.

Question 5137

Topic: 6. Spine

An 18-month-old child with achondroplasia presents with central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, and delayed motor milestones. Which of the following is the most likely anatomic cause of these symptoms?

. Hydrocephalus
. Foramen magnum stenosis
. Atlantoaxial instability
. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Lumbar spinal stenosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Foramen magnum stenosis


Explanation

Foramen magnum stenosis in achondroplasia can cause severe cervicomedullary compression, presenting clinically with central sleep apnea, myelopathy (hyperreflexia), and a risk of sudden death. It requires urgent neurosurgical evaluation for decompression.

Question 5138

Topic: 6. Spine

An infant with achondroplasia presents with central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, and hypotonia. These clinical findings are most likely secondary to which of the following complications?

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Atlantoaxial instability
. Foramen magnum stenosis
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Tethered cord syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Foramen magnum stenosis


Explanation

Infants with achondroplasia are at high risk for foramen magnum stenosis due to abnormal endochondral ossification of the skull base. This can lead to cervicomedullary compression, presenting with central sleep apnea, hypotonia, and sudden death.

Question 5139

Topic: 6. Spine

A 3-year-old girl is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. The curve is currently 35 degrees. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram are normal. An MRI of the entire spine is obtained. What is the most common intraspinal anomaly associated with this condition?

. Tethered cord
. Syringomyelia
. Diastematomyelia
. Chiari I malformation
. Lipomyelomeningocele

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tethered cord


Explanation

Intraspinal anomalies occur in up to 30-40% of patients with congenital scoliosis. The most common of these is a tethered cord, making an MRI of the entire neuraxis mandatory prior to any surgical intervention.

Question 5140

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old male gymnast presents with persistent lower back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs and an MRI confirm a bilateral L5 pars interarticularis defect with a Grade I spondylolisthesis. The pain has not improved after 6 months of rest, bracing, and physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation
. Direct pars defect repair with pedicle screws and laminar hooks
. L5 laminectomy
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion
. S1 nerve root decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation


Explanation

In a patient with spondylolisthesis (even Grade I) that fails non-operative management, a posterolateral in situ fusion (L5-S1) is the procedure of choice. Direct pars repair is generally reserved for patients with a pars defect (spondylolysis) without any spondylolisthesis (slip).