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Question 4441

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old female presents with neck pain and right arm radiculopathy in the C6 distribution. She has a positive Spurling's test. Conservative treatment for 6 weeks has failed. MRI shows a right paracentral disc herniation at C5-C6. Which of the following motor deficits is most likely present?

. Weakness in shoulder abduction
. Weakness in elbow flexion and wrist extension
. Weakness in elbow extension and wrist flexion
. Weakness in finger flexors
. Weakness in finger abductors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in shoulder abduction


Explanation

A C5-C6 disc herniation compresses the C6 nerve root. The C6 root supplies the biceps (elbow flexion) and wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis).

Question 4442

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old male dives into shallow water and sustains an isolated Jefferson (C1) burst fracture. An open-mouth odontoid view demonstrates combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of 8 mm. What does this radiographic finding indicate?

. Intact transverse atlantal ligament
. Ruptured transverse atlantal ligament
. Ruptured alar ligament
. Intact apical ligament
. Type II odontoid fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact transverse atlantal ligament


Explanation

According to the Rule of Spence, a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 greater than 6.9 mm indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the fracture unstable.

Question 4443

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a severe hyperflexion injury to his thoracic spine. Imaging reveals a Chance fracture (flexion-distraction injury) at T12. Which of the following associated injuries is most commonly found with this fracture pattern?

. Aortic dissection
. Pulmonary contusion
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Bladder rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aortic dissection


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries), especially those associated with lap-belt use, have a high association with intra-abdominal injuries, most commonly involving hollow viscous organs such as the bowel.

Question 4444

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male presents with persistent low back pain and stiffness, particularly worse in the morning and improving with activity. He is HLA-B27 positive. Radiographs demonstrate squaring of the vertebral bodies and marginal syndesmophytes. In patients with this condition, which of the following fracture patterns is most likely to result in an epidural hematoma?

. Odontoid fracture
. Cervicothoracic junction hyperextension fracture
. Lumbar compression fracture
. Thoracic burst fracture
. Sacral insufficiency fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Odontoid fracture


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are highly susceptible to hyperextension injuries, typically at the cervicothoracic junction. These transcortical fractures carry a high risk of epidural hematoma and spinal cord injury.

Question 4445

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgical intervention in a patient with an acute spinal epidural abscess?

. Axial back pain without neurological deficit
. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) > 100 mm/hr
. Positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus
. Progressive neurological deficit
. Abscess location in the posterior epidural space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axial back pain without neurological deficit


Explanation

The presence of a progressive neurological deficit is an absolute indication for emergent surgical decompression and debridement in patients with a spinal epidural abscess to prevent irreversible paralysis.

Question 4446

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral leg pain and fatigue that worsens after walking two blocks. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis, as opposed to vascular claudication?

. Pain is relieved promptly by simply stopping and standing still.
. Leg pain is accompanied by trophic skin changes and diminished peripheral pulses.
. Pain worsens when walking uphill compared to downhill.
. Pain is relieved by sitting or leaning forward at the waist.
. Symptoms begin exclusively in the calf and radiate proximally.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain is relieved promptly by simply stopping and standing still.


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is classically relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., sitting or leaning forward on a shopping cart), which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. In contrast, vascular claudication is relieved by resting while standing and worsens with increased metabolic demand like walking uphill.

Question 4447

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops new-onset unilateral weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Iatrogenic transection of the accessory nerve
. Tethering and traction of the C5 nerve root due to posterior spinal cord drift
. Ischemic injury to the anterior spinal artery territory
. Inadequate foraminal decompression of the C8 nerve root
. Hardware pullout causing direct compression of the C7 nerve root

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iatrogenic transection of the accessory nerve


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a well-documented complication following cervical decompression, especially posterior procedures. It is most commonly attributed to the posterior shift of the spinal cord resulting in traction on the relatively short C5 nerve root, and typically resolves with conservative management.

Question 4448

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old boy presents with refusal to walk, bleeding gums, and petechiae. Radiographs show osteopenia and an exaggerated white line of Frankel. The underlying defect involves an impairment in which of the following steps of collagen synthesis?

. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminal propeptides
. Glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Cross-linking of tropocollagen via lysyl oxidase
. Assembly of three alpha chains into a triple helix

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cleavage of procollagen C-terminal propeptides


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency). Ascorbic acid is an essential cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases, which are required for the critical hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues during early collagen synthesis.

Question 4449

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior cervical foraminotomy, the surgeon must be acutely aware of the vertebral artery's course. The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

. C2
. C4
. C6
. C7
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C2


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically arises from the first part of the subclavian artery and ascends to enter the transverse foramen of the cervical spine at the C6 level in approximately 90% of individuals.

Question 4450

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following best describes the precise anatomic origin of the reflected head of the rectus femoris?

. Anterior superior iliac spine
. Anterior inferior iliac spine
. Superior brim of the acetabulum and anterior hip capsule
. Lesser trochanter
. Greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior superior iliac spine


Explanation

The rectus femoris has two origins: the straight head originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), and the reflected head originates from the groove just above the superior rim of the acetabulum and the anterior hip capsule.

Question 4451

Topic: 6. Spine

In the setting of a hip arthroscopy, the surgeon must be cautious when establishing the anterolateral portal to avoid injury to a major nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is at risk. What is the typical anatomical course of the LFCN as it exits the pelvis?

. Medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), deep to the inguinal ligament
. Lateral to the ASIS, superficial to the sartorius
. Through the femoral canal, medial to the femoral vein
. Posterior to the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), piercing the rectus femoris
. Along the iliac crest, terminating at the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), deep to the inguinal ligament


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve typically exits the pelvis medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), passing deep to the inguinal ligament to supply sensation to the anterolateral thigh.

Question 4452

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old elite track athlete presents with acute, severe pain over the anterior pelvis after forcefully kicking a ball. Radiographs demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Which muscle is responsible for this avulsion?

. Sartorius
. Rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas
. Gluteus minimus
. Tensor fasciae latae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius


Explanation

The direct head of the rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and is the muscle responsible for avulsion fractures at this site. In contrast, the sartorius originates at the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

Question 4453

Topic: 6. Spine

An adolescent soccer player sustains a pelvic avulsion fracture resulting from a forceful kick. Radiographs confirm an avulsion of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Which muscle is primarily responsible for this injury?

. Rectus femoris
. Sartorius
. Iliopsoas
. Gracilis
. Adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus femoris


Explanation

The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is the origin of the sartorius muscle (and the tensor fasciae latae). Forceful contraction during activities like kicking can lead to an avulsion fracture of the ASIS.

Question 4454

Topic: Cervical Spine

Half of all cervical spine rotation occurs at the atlantoaxial (C1-C2) articulation. Which of the following ligaments is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the atlas on the axis?

. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alar ligament


Explanation

The transverse ligament of the atlas courses posterior to the dens, holding it tightly against the anterior arch of C1. It is the crucial primary stabilizer preventing anterior translation of C1 relative to C2.

Question 4455

Topic: 6. Spine

The alar ligaments play a critical role in craniocervical stability. What is their primary biomechanical function?

. Limit flexion of the occiput on C1
. Limit axial rotation of the upper cervical spine
. Limit anterior translation of C1 on C2
. Prevent vertical settling of the cranium
. Connect the apex of the dens to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Limit flexion of the occiput on C1


Explanation

The alar ligaments connect the superior aspect of the dens to the medial aspects of the occipital condyles. They act as the primary structural restraints to excessive axial rotation and lateral bending in the upper cervical spine.

Question 4456

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old professional javelin thrower presents with medial elbow pain. Valgus stress testing is positive at 30 degrees of elbow flexion. Which structure is the primary restraint to valgus instability in this position?

. Posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament of Cooper
. Radial collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from approximately 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle contributes more in deep flexion.

Question 4457

Topic: 6. Spine

Normal kinematics of the subaxial cervical spine exhibit obligate coupled motions due to the spatial orientation of the facet joints. When a patient performs active lateral bending of the neck to the right, which obligate coupled motion naturally occurs?

. Axial rotation to the left
. Axial rotation to the right
. Flexion
. Extension
. Pure translation to the right

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axial rotation to the left


Explanation

In the subaxial cervical spine (C2-C7), lateral bending is biomechanically coupled with axial rotation to the ipsilateral side. Therefore, right lateral bending couples with right axial rotation.

Question 4458

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with neurogenic claudication. Lumbar MRI reveals severe central canal stenosis at L4-L5, largely secondary to hypertrophy of the posterior ligamentous structures. Which of the following extracellular matrix components is disproportionately high in the normal anatomy of the specific ligament contributing most to this compression?

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Elastin
. Fibronectin
. Proteoglycans

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

The ligamentum flavum contributes significantly to central canal stenosis when hypertrophied or buckled. Unlike most ligaments that are primarily Type I collagen, the ligamentum flavum is composed of approximately 80% elastin, giving it high elasticity and a yellow appearance.

Question 4459

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following arteries typically provides the major blood supply to the anterior lower two-thirds of the spinal cord and most commonly arises on the left side between T8 and L1?

. Artery of Adamkiewicz
. Anterior spinal artery branch from the vertebral artery
. Radicular artery of the cervical enlargement
. Posterior spinal artery
. Lumbar segmental medullary artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of Adamkiewicz


Explanation

The Artery of Adamkiewicz is the largest anterior segmental medullary artery. It typically arises from the left side of the aorta between T8 and L1, providing crucial blood supply to the anterior lower two-thirds of the spinal cord.

Question 4460

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), lateral dissection carries the risk of injuring the vertebral artery. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically first enter the transverse foramen?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3


Explanation

The vertebral artery arises from the subclavian artery and typically enters the transverse foramen at the level of C6. It then ascends through the transverse foramina of the upper cervical vertebrae before entering the foramen magnum.