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Question 4341

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. His neurologic examination is normal. An MRI confirms that the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is completely intact. What is his Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, and what is the generally recommended treatment?

. Score 2, nonoperative management
. Score 4, surgical management
. Score 5, surgical management
. Score 2, surgical management
. Score 3, nonoperative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 2, nonoperative management


Explanation

The TLICS score is calculated as follows: Burst morphology (2 points), intact PLC (0 points), and normal neurologic status (0 points), giving a total score of 2. A score of 3 or less is typically treated nonoperatively.

Question 4342

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old female is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing a lap belt. She sustains a severe flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. What is the most commonly associated concomitant injury in this specific scenario?

. Aortic tear
. Cervical spine fracture
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Pulmonary contusion
. Diaphragmatic rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aortic tear


Explanation

Chance fractures, particularly those caused by lap belts in motor vehicle collisions, are highly associated with intra-abdominal injuries, most notably hollow viscus injuries (e.g., bowel perforation).

Question 4343

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents with back pain after a ground-level fall. CT scan shows a displaced transverse fracture through the T10-T11 disc space extending into the posterior elements. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical strategy?

. Short-segment posterior instrumentation
. Long-segment posterior instrumentation
. Anterior plate fixation only
. Vertebroplasty
. Nonoperative management with a rigid orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short-segment posterior instrumentation


Explanation

Fractures in the ankylosed spine are highly unstable shear injuries that act like long lever arms. They require long-segment posterior instrumentation (typically at least three levels above and below) to achieve adequate stability and prevent failure.

Question 4344

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male with central lumbar spinal stenosis is considering an epidural steroid injection (ESI). Which of the following best describes the expected efficacy of ESIs for neurogenic claudication based on recent randomized controlled trials?

. Long-term improvement in walking distance greater than surgery
. Significant long-term pain relief but no improvement in walking distance
. Short-term relief of leg pain, but no significant long-term difference compared to local anesthetic alone
. Permanent resolution of symptoms in 50% of patients
. Increased risk of cauda equina syndrome compared to surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long-term improvement in walking distance greater than surgery


Explanation

Recent high-quality RCTs have shown that epidural steroid injections may provide short-term symptomatic relief but offer no significant long-term benefit over local anesthetic injections alone for central lumbar stenosis.

Question 4345

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old male presents with a T12 burst fracture and profound paraparesis (ASIA B). CT reveals 60% canal compromise by a large retropulsed bone fragment. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Surgical decompression and stabilization
. Bed rest and bracing
. Laminectomy alone without fusion
. Vertebroplasty
. Epidural steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical decompression and stabilization


Explanation

In the presence of an incomplete spinal cord injury with significant anterior canal compromise and instability, surgical decompression and stabilization is the standard of care to maximize neurological recovery.

Question 4346

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In the evaluation of a patient with an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, which of the following spinopelvic parameters is a fixed morphologic feature of the pelvis that does not change with patient positioning?

. Pelvic tilt
. Sacral slope
. Lumbar lordosis
. Pelvic incidence
. Sagittal vertical axis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic tilt


Explanation

Pelvic incidence is a fixed anatomical parameter that defines the morphology of the pelvis and dictates the required lumbar lordosis. It does not change with position, unlike pelvic tilt and sacral slope.

Question 4347

Topic: 6. Spine

During a routine L4-L5 lumbar laminectomy for stenosis, a 3-mm incidental durotomy occurs. A primary water-tight repair is achieved intraoperatively. Which of the following postoperative protocols is most supported by recent literature?

. Strict flat bed rest for 7 days
. Immediate placement of a lumbar subarachnoid drain
. Early mobilization as tolerated
. Prophylactic broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics for 14 days
. Reoperation within 24 hours to reinforce with a muscle flap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Strict flat bed rest for 7 days


Explanation

Recent studies demonstrate that early mobilization following a successful primary watertight repair of an incidental durotomy does not increase complication rates and avoids the morbidity of prolonged bed rest.

Question 4348

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female presents with new-onset neurogenic claudication 5 years after an L4-L5 posterolateral fusion. Imaging shows severe L3-L4 central stenosis. Which of the following is considered the strongest modifiable risk factor for the development of adjacent segment disease requiring surgery?

. Use of pedicle screws
. Sagittal imbalance with loss of lumbar lordosis
. Patient age less than 50
. Male sex
. Use of interbody cages

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use of pedicle screws


Explanation

Postoperative sagittal imbalance, specifically a hypolordotic fusion (flatback), significantly increases biomechanical stress on the adjacent segments, making it a major risk factor for adjacent segment disease.

Question 4349

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with calf pain after walking two blocks is evaluated. To differentiate neurogenic from vascular claudication, he undergoes a stationary bicycle test. Which finding is most consistent with neurogenic claudication?

. Pain occurs early during cycling regardless of posture
. Cycling in an extended posture delays the onset of pain
. Cycling in a flexed posture relieves or prevents the pain
. Pain is exacerbated by cycling in a flexed posture
. The test is unable to distinguish between the two conditions

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain occurs early during cycling regardless of posture


Explanation

During the stationary bicycle test, leaning forward (flexion) opens the spinal canal and relieves symptoms of neurogenic claudication. Patients with vascular claudication will experience pain regardless of spinal posture due to muscle ischemia.

Question 4350

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with a history of lumbar stenosis presents to the emergency department with acute urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral lower extremity weakness. MRI confirms a massive disc extrusion at L4-L5. Surgical decompression is classically recommended within what maximum timeframe to maximize the chance of bladder function recovery?

. 12 hours
. 24 hours
. 48 hours
. 72 hours
. 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 12 hours


Explanation

Decompression within 48 hours for cauda equina syndrome is classically associated with significantly improved rates of neurological and urological recovery compared to delayed surgery.

Question 4351

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following biomechanical characteristics most accurately explains why the thoracolumbar junction (T11-L2) is highly susceptible to traumatic fractures?

. Transition from the mobile thoracic spine to the rigid lumbar spine
. Transition from the rigid, kyphotic thoracic spine to the mobile, lordotic lumbar spine
. Lack of muscular support in the thoracolumbar fascia
. Increased intervertebral disc height compared to the lower lumbar spine
. Absence of the posterior longitudinal ligament at this level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transition from the mobile thoracic spine to the rigid lumbar spine


Explanation

The thoracolumbar junction represents a vulnerable biomechanical transition zone between the rigid, rib-supported kyphotic thoracic spine and the highly mobile, lordotic lumbar spine.

Question 4352

Topic: 6. Spine

The McCormack Load Sharing Classification is used to determine the need for anterior column support in thoracolumbar burst fractures. Which of the following is NOT a criterion assessed in this classification?

. Amount of vertebral body comminution
. Displacement of fracture fragments
. Degree of kyphosis correction
. Amount of retropulsion into the spinal canal
. Neurological status

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amount of vertebral body comminution


Explanation

The Load Sharing Classification specifically evaluates comminution, fracture fragment displacement, and the amount of kyphosis correction needed. Neurological status is not part of this strictly morphologic/biomechanical scoring system.

Question 4353

Topic: 6. Spine

In an adult patient with degenerative lumbar scoliosis and concurrent spinal stenosis, which of the following radiographic parameters is most highly predictive of curve progression?

. Cobb angle of 20 degrees
. Apical vertebral rotation of Grade I
. Lateral listhesis greater than 6 mm
. Lumbosacral fractional curve of 10 degrees
. Thoracic kyphosis of 40 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobb angle of 20 degrees


Explanation

Risk factors for the progression of degenerative lumbar scoliosis include a Cobb angle >30 degrees, apical rotation >Grade II, an intercrest line passing through L5, and lateral listhesis greater than 6 mm.

Question 4354

Topic: 6. Spine

Following a successful multi-level lumbar decompression for central spinal stenosis without instability, which symptom typically demonstrates the LEAST amount of improvement postoperatively?

. Leg pain during walking
. Radicular leg pain at rest
. Sensory deficits in the feet
. Neurogenic claudication
. Mechanical low back pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Leg pain during walking


Explanation

Mechanical low back pain is notoriously unpredictable and typically shows the least improvement compared to lower extremity symptoms (such as neurogenic claudication) following a pure lumbar decompression without fusion.

Question 4355

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication and an L4-L5 grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of comprehensive physical therapy and epidural steroid injections. Based on the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT), what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Decompressive laminectomy alone
. Decompressive laminectomy with posterior spinal fusion
. Placement of an interspinous spacer
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion without posterior instrumentation
. Microdiscectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decompressive laminectomy alone


Explanation

The SPORT trial demonstrated that for degenerative spondylolisthesis with concomitant spinal stenosis, decompressive laminectomy combined with fusion provides superior long-term functional outcomes compared to nonoperative care or decompression alone.

Question 4356

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male falls from 10 feet, sustaining an isolated L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. CT imaging shows 30% canal compromise, and MRI confirms an intact posterior ligamentous complex. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior short segment pedicle screw fixation
. Laminectomy and short-segment fusion
. TLSO bracing and early mobilization
. Strict bed rest for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion


Explanation

The TLICS score for this injury is 2 (Morphology=2 for burst, Neurology=0, PLC=0). A score of less than 4 implies that non-operative management, such as a TLSO brace and early mobilization, is indicated.

Question 4357

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following historical or physical examination findings best differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

. Pain exacerbated by walking downhill
. Diminished posterior tibial pulses
. Pain promptly relieved by standing still
. Cramping pain strictly localized to the calves
. Loss of hair on the distal lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain exacerbated by walking downhill


Explanation

Walking downhill promotes lumbar extension, which decreases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and exacerbates neurogenic claudication. Vascular claudication is worsened by exertion regardless of spinal posture and is relieved by standing still.

Question 4358

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision wearing a lap-belt only. Imaging reveals a flexion-distraction (Chance) fracture at L2. Which associated injury has the highest likelihood of being present and must be urgently ruled out?

. Aortic dissection
. Hollow viscus injury
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Splenic laceration
. Pulmonary contusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aortic dissection


Explanation

Chance fractures caused by lap-belt restraints have a high association (up to 50%) with concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus (bowel) rupture, due to acute hyperflexion over the belt.

Question 4359

Topic: 6. Spine

During a wide bilateral lumbar laminectomy for central spinal stenosis, preserving spinal stability is critical. To minimize the risk of iatrogenic pars interarticularis fractures and subsequent instability, what minimum width of the pars must be preserved bilaterally?

. 2 mm
. 5 mm
. 8 mm
. 12 mm
. 15 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 mm


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that at least 5 mm of the pars interarticularis must be preserved during decompression to minimize the risk of iatrogenic pars fracture and secondary instability.

Question 4360

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male with long-standing, rigid ankylosing spondylitis presents with new-onset mechanical back pain after a ground-level fall. Plain radiographs of the thoracolumbar spine are unrevealing, and neurologic exam is intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and scheduled physical therapy
. Order a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan
. Perform a diagnostic bilateral facet block
. Obtain an MRI or CT of the entire spine
. Apply a rigid TLSO brace and schedule outpatient follow-up

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with NSAIDs and scheduled physical therapy


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are highly susceptible to unstable 'chalk-stick' fractures even from minor trauma. If plain films are negative, advanced imaging (CT or MRI) of the entire spine is mandatory to rule out occult fractures.