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Question 3961

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient involved in a high-speed collision sustains a burst fracture of L1. On examination, he has loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation below the umbilicus, but retains proprioception and vibratory sense. This presentation is characteristic of which spinal cord syndrome?

. Central cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Anterior cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Anterior cord syndrome results from injury to the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, often due to flexion injuries. It causes bilateral loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation, while dorsal column functions (proprioception, vibration) are preserved.

Question 3962

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following injury characteristics assigns the highest independent point value toward the decision for surgical intervention?

. Compression morphology
. Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC)
. Complete neurologic deficit
. Burst morphology
. Nerve root injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC)


Explanation

In the TLICS system, an injured (disrupted) PLC is assigned 3 points, which is the highest individual score for a single category, alongside an incomplete neurologic deficit. A total score of 5 or more generally indicates surgical management.

Question 3963

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man has a large sequestered (free fragment) disc herniation at L5-S1 causing severe S1 radiculopathy without motor deficit. What is the expected natural history of this specific type of disc herniation?

. It has the lowest chance of spontaneous resorption
. It is highly likely to cause permanent bowel/bladder dysfunction if not removed within 2 weeks
. It has the highest rate of spontaneous resorption via macrophage-mediated phagocytosis
. It will inevitably calcify and cause severe spinal stenosis
. It requires emergent microdiscectomy regardless of symptoms

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It has the highest rate of spontaneous resorption via macrophage-mediated phagocytosis


Explanation

Sequestered disc herniations have the highest rate of spontaneous resorption among all disc herniation types. The free fragment is exposed to the systemic circulation in the epidural space, triggering a robust macrophage-mediated inflammatory response.

Question 3964

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old man is brought to the ED after a lap-belt restrained motor vehicle collision. X-rays reveal a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be actively ruled out?

. Aortic transection
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are highly associated with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries like bowel perforations (up to 40-50% incidence). Prompt general surgery evaluation and abdominal CT are mandated.

Question 3965

Topic: 6. Spine

An 80-year-old man with long-standing Ankylosing Spondylitis falls backwards, hitting his head. He reports severe neck pain but has a normal neurological examination. Initial cross-table lateral cervical X-rays are read as normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft collar and outpatient follow-up
. Perform dynamic flexion-extension X-rays
. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical and upper thoracic spine
. Perform an immediate closed reduction
. Administer high-dose methylprednisolone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan of the entire cervical and upper thoracic spine


Explanation

Patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines that are highly susceptible to unstable "chalk-stick" fractures even from minor trauma. Standard X-rays are inadequate; a CT scan of the entire cervical spine down to T1 is mandatory to rule out occult fractures.

Question 3966

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old woman presents with progressive clumsiness in her hands and difficulty walking. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally, hyperreflexia in the lower extremities, and an inverted radial reflex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Multiple sclerosis
. Syringomyelia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy


Explanation

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy classically presents with upper motor neuron signs (hyperreflexia, Hoffmann sign) and gait instability. The inverted radial reflex is highly specific for spinal cord compression at the C5-C6 level.

Question 3967

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury presents to the ER with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 50 bpm. His extremities are warm and well-perfused. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism for his hemodynamic state?

. Hypovolemia from occult hemorrhage
. Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
. Vagal nerve compression
. Myocardial contusion
. Adrenal insufficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of sympathetic vascular tone


Explanation

The patient is in neurogenic shock, characterized by hypotension and bradycardia due to the loss of sympathetic tone, which normally originates from the T1-L2 levels. It is classically seen in spinal cord injuries above T6.

Question 3968

Topic: 6. Spine

In a patient with traumatic spinal cord injury, the end of the "spinal shock" phase is clinically indicated by the return of which of the following?

. Voluntary toe movement
. Deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
. The bulbocavernosus reflex
. Normal bladder tone
. Proprioception in the toes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The bulbocavernosus reflex


Explanation

Spinal shock is a transient state of physiologic complete loss of spinal cord function below the level of injury. Its resolution is clinically marked by the return of the bulbocavernosus reflex, typically within 24 to 48 hours.

Question 3969

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe, burning right anterior thigh pain and weakness in knee extension. Her symptoms began acutely after lifting a heavy box. Physical examination reveals a diminished right patellar reflex and a positive femoral stretch test. MRI of the lumbar spine demonstrates a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely being compressed?

. Traversing L4 nerve root
. Exiting L3 nerve root
. Traversing L3 nerve root
. Exiting L4 nerve root
. Exiting L2 nerve root

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exiting L3 nerve root


Explanation

A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation in the lumbar spine compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, a far lateral disc herniation at L3-L4 compresses the exiting L3 nerve root, leading to anterior thigh pain, quadriceps weakness, and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 3970

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with a history of cervical spondylosis falls forward, striking his forehead. He presents to the emergency department with profound bilateral upper extremity weakness and relatively preserved lower extremity function. Sensation is decreased in a cape-like distribution over his shoulders. Following initial ATLS protocol, which of the following is the most critical medical management parameter for his spinal cord injury?

. Immediate administration of high-dose methylprednisolone
. Induction of therapeutic hypothermia
. Maintenance of Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) > 85 mmHg for 7 days
. Immediate awake closed reduction with cranial tongs
. Routine administration of prophylactic hypertonic saline

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Maintenance of Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) > 85 mmHg for 7 days


Explanation

This patient's presentation is classic for central cord syndrome, typically occurring via a hyperextension injury in a stenotic cervical spine. Current guidelines strongly recommend avoiding hypotension and maintaining a MAP > 85 mmHg for 5 to 7 days to optimize spinal cord perfusion.

Question 3971

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after a diving accident. He is awake, alert, and cooperative. Neurologic examination is entirely normal. Plain radiographs and CT scans demonstrate a unilateral C5-C6 facet dislocation with approximately 25% anterior translation of C5 on C6. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Awake closed reduction with cranial tongs and serial neurologic exams
. Obtaining an MRI of the cervical spine prior to any reduction attempts
. Immediate posterior open reduction and fusion under general anesthesia
. Immediate anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)
. Application of a halo vest without reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Awake closed reduction with cranial tongs and serial neurologic exams


Explanation

In an awake, alert, and cooperative patient with a cervical facet dislocation, rapid awake closed reduction with cranial tongs is indicated and can be safely performed without a pre-reduction MRI. Pre-reduction MRI is reserved for patients who are unexaminable (e.g., comatose) or those who fail closed reduction.

Question 3972

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old man with multiple medical comorbidities including severe COPD and ischemic heart disease falls from a standing height. CT of the cervical spine reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization


Explanation

While surgery typically yields higher union rates for Type II odontoid fractures, elderly patients with significant comorbidities suffer high morbidity and mortality with both surgery and halo vest immobilization. Recent evidence supports treatment with a rigid cervical collar, as fibrous nonunion is often asymptomatic and well-tolerated.

Question 3973

Topic: 6. Spine

An 18-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing a lap belt. He complains of severe back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a horizontal fracture line passing through the spinous process, pedicles, and vertebral body of L2. Neurologic exam is normal. Which of the following is the most essential next step in his evaluation?

. Flexion-extension lumbar radiographs
. MRI of the thoracic spine
. Bone scintigraphy
. CT of the abdomen and pelvis
. Immediate surgical decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT of the abdomen and pelvis


Explanation

The patient has sustained a Chance fracture (flexion-distraction injury), which is highly associated with the use of lap seatbelts. Up to 50% of these injuries are associated with intra-abdominal solid or hollow viscus injuries, making a CT of the abdomen and pelvis mandatory.

Question 3974

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old woman presents with worsening back and bilateral leg pain that increases with walking and is relieved by leaning over a shopping cart. She has failed 6 months of non-operative management including physical therapy and epidural steroid injections. Imaging reveals an L4-L5 Grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis with severe central canal stenosis. Dynamic radiographs show 4 mm of translation. What is the most effective surgical treatment?

. L4-L5 laminectomy alone
. Stand-alone interspinous spacer device
. L4-L5 decompression and instrumented posterolateral fusion
. L4-L5 total disc arthroplasty
. Bilateral laminotomies with microdiscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 decompression and instrumented posterolateral fusion


Explanation

In the setting of degenerative spondylolisthesis with symptomatic spinal stenosis and dynamic instability, surgical decompression combined with instrumented posterolateral fusion provides superior clinical outcomes compared to decompression alone.

Question 3975

Topic: 6. Spine

A 24-year-old male arrives in the emergency department after a motorcycle crash. He has a palpable step-off at the upper thoracic spine and is completely flaccid and areflexic below the T4 level. His heart rate is 50 beats/minute and his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. His extremities are warm and well-perfused. Which of the following best explains his hemodynamic parameters?

. Hemorrhagic shock from an occult intra-abdominal bleed
. Loss of descending sympathetic tone
. Parasympathetic denervation at the vagal level
. Cardiogenic shock secondary to myocardial contusion
. Autonomic dysreflexia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of descending sympathetic tone


Explanation

The patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities. This results from a complete spinal cord injury above the level of T6, leading to a loss of descending sympathetic vascular tone and unopposed vagal (parasympathetic) activity.

Question 3976

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of insidious onset lower back pain that worsens with back extension. Neurologic examination is entirely normal. Radiographs reveal a pars interarticularis defect at L5 bilaterally with 15% translation of L5 on S1. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Activity modification and core-strengthening physical therapy
. Rigid TLSO bracing for 23 hours a day for 6 months
. Pars interarticularis repair (e.g., Buck's procedure)
. L5-S1 uninstrumented posterolateral fusion
. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activity modification and core-strengthening physical therapy


Explanation

The patient has a Grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis. The first line of treatment for a symptomatic, low-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis in a neurologically intact adolescent is non-operative, focusing on activity modification and physical therapy to strengthen the core and stretch the hamstrings.

Question 3977

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe lower back pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and new-onset urinary incontinence. Physical examination reveals perianal numbness and decreased bilateral Achilles reflexes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Intravenous dexamethasone and observation
. Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine
. Immediate surgical decompression without prior imaging
. Routine post-void residual ultrasound followed by discharge if normal
. Electromyography (EMG) of the lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent MRI of the lumbar spine


Explanation

This patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of Cauda Equina Syndrome. An emergent MRI of the lumbar spine is required to confirm the diagnosis and define the anatomy before proceeding to emergent surgical decompression, which should typically be performed within 24 to 48 hours to optimize functional recovery.

Question 3978

Topic: 6. Spine

When evaluating an MRI of the cervical spine in a patient with severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy, which of the following intrinsic cord signal changes is associated with the poorest prognosis for neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?

. T2-weighted hyperintense signal across one level
. Multilevel disk desiccation and Modic type II changes
. T1-weighted focal hypointense signal within the cord
. Loss of normal cervical lordosis
. T2-weighted hyperintense signal isolated to the dorsal columns

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1-weighted focal hypointense signal within the cord


Explanation

Intrinsic cord signal changes can predict outcomes in cervical myelopathy. A focal T1-weighted hypointense signal indicates permanent cystic necrosis or myelomalacia and is strongly correlated with poor clinical recovery compared to isolated T2-weighted hyperintensity, which may represent reversible edema.

Question 3979

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man with a known history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department complaining of severe neck pain after a minor fall from a chair. He is neurologically intact. Standard anteroposterior and lateral cervical radiographs demonstrate osteopenia and syndesmophyte formation but no obvious fracture. What is the mandatory next step in his evaluation?

. Discharge home with a soft cervical collar and muscle relaxants
. Dynamic flexion-extension cervical radiographs
. Technetium-99m bone scintigraphy
. CT or MRI of the entire cervical and thoracic spine
. Reassurance and outpatient physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT or MRI of the entire cervical and thoracic spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigidly fused, osteopenic spines that fracture easily even with low-energy trauma. Because these fractures are highly unstable and often missed on plain radiographs, advanced imaging (CT or MRI) of the entire spine is mandatory to rule out an occult, highly destabilizing fracture.

Question 3980

Topic: 6. Spine

A traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis, commonly known as a Hangman's fracture, involves bilateral fractures through which specific anatomic structure?

. Dens (odontoid process)
. Pars interarticularis of C2
. Pedicles of C1
. Lateral masses of C1
. Spinous process of C2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pars interarticularis of C2


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture is defined as a bilateral fracture through the pars interarticularis (or sometimes the adjacent pedicles) of the C2 vertebra. It is typically caused by hyperextension and axial loading.