This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3761
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) for a right-sided C5-C6 paracentral disc herniation. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this disc herniation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Right C6 nerve root
Explanation
In the cervical spine, nerve roots exit horizontally above their correspondingly numbered pedicle (the C6 root exits between C5 and C6). Therefore, a posterolateral disc herniation at the C5-C6 level typically compresses the exiting C6 nerve root.
Question 3762
Topic: 6. Spine
When placing a pedicle screw in the lumbar spine, the surgeon identifies the starting point at the intersection of the pars interarticularis, the midpoint of the transverse process, and the superior articular facet. Medial breach of the pedicle screw at the L4 vertebral body most directly endangers the dural sac and which of the following nerve roots?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Traversing L5 root
Explanation
A medial pedicle breach at the L4 level endangers the dural sac and the traversing L5 nerve root. The exiting L4 root travels directly inferior to the L4 pedicle and is at greatest risk with an inferior breach.
Question 3763
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient presents with weakness in wrist extension and altered sensation over the dorsal web space of the hand. An MRI reveals a herniated cervical disc. Between which two cervical vertebrae is the herniation most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6-C7
Explanation
Weakness in wrist extension and triceps, combined with numbness in the dorsal web space (middle finger), is characteristic of a C7 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, the C7 nerve root exits through the C6-C7 neural foramen.
Question 3764
Topic: 6. Spine
During a posterior cervical approach, the surgeon dissects laterally. At which level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen and become at risk during lateral mass screw placement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6
Explanation
The vertebral artery typically enters the cervical spine at the C6 transverse foramen, bypassing C7. It then ascends through the foramina to the foramen magnum.
Question 3765
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient presents with acute weakness of the quadriceps and an absent patellar reflex. MRI shows a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at L4-L5. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
A far lateral disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root. This leads to quadriceps weakness and a diminished patellar reflex.
Question 3766
Topic: Cervical Spine
Which portion of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking phase of throwing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle is the primary valgus stabilizer of the elbow. Within it, the anterior band is tight in extension, which is critical during the late cocking and early acceleration phases.
Question 3767
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), self-retaining retractors are placed. Which anatomical structure is at greatest risk of injury leading to Horner's syndrome if the longus colli muscles are retracted too far laterally?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sympathetic trunk
Explanation
The sympathetic trunk lies on the anterior surface of the longus colli muscles laterally. Placing retractors too far laterally can damage it, causing Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis).
Question 3768
Topic: 6. Spine
During a posterior approach to the cervical spine at C1-C2, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to the vertebral artery. At this level, the vertebral artery lies directly superior to which anatomical structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C1 posterior arch
Explanation
The vertebral artery exits the C1 transverse foramen and courses medially along the superior surface of the C1 posterior arch in the vertebral groove before piercing the atlanto-occipital membrane.
Question 3769
Topic: 6. Spine
During a retroperitoneal approach to the anterior lumbar spine at L4-L5, which of the following vascular structures must be mobilized from left to right to safely expose the disc space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliolumbar vein
Explanation
The iliolumbar vein typically crosses the L4-L5 disc space or the body of L5. It tethers the left common iliac vein and must be ligated and divided to allow safe medial retraction of the major vasculature.
Question 3770
Topic: 6. Spine
When inserting a pedicle screw at the T8 level, what is the anatomical relationship of the exiting nerve root to the corresponding pedicle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The T8 nerve root exits below the T8 pedicle
Explanation
In the thoracic and lumbar spine, the numbered nerve root exits through the intervertebral foramen below the corresponding numbered pedicle. For example, the T8 nerve root exits below the T8 pedicle.
Question 3771
Topic: 6. Spine
In the lumbar spine, the facet joints are oriented primarily in which plane, thereby allowing for significant flexion and extension but heavily limiting axial rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal plane
Explanation
The lumbar facet joints are aligned predominantly in the sagittal plane. This unique orientation facilitates flexion and extension while strongly restricting axial rotation, in contrast to the more coronally oriented thoracic facets.
Question 3772
Topic: 6. Spine
When placing pedicle screws in the lumbar spine, which level typically requires the greatest medial angulation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5
Explanation
The pedicles in the lumbar spine become wider and require more medial angulation as you progress caudally from L1 to L5. The L5 pedicle typically requires 25 to 30 degrees of medial angulation.
Question 3773
Topic: 6. Spine
In the typical cervical spine, the vertebral artery most commonly enters the transverse foramen at which vertebral level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6
Explanation
The vertebral artery typically branches from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level. It then travels superiorly through the transverse foramina to the foramen magnum.
Question 3774
Topic: 6. Spine
The alar ligaments are essential primary stabilizers of the craniocervical junction. What is their primary biomechanical function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Limit axial rotation and lateral bending
Explanation
The alar ligaments connect the dens to the medial aspect of the occipital condyles. Their primary biomechanical role is to limit axial rotation and lateral bending of the head relative to the cervical spine.
Question 3775
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient presents with weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and numbness in the first dorsal web space. MRI demonstrates a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far lateral herniation compresses the L4 nerve root.
Question 3776
Topic: 6. Spine
A surgeon is performing an anterior approach to the cervical spine at the C5-C6 level. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is at risk. Which of the following describes its typical anatomical course on the right side?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends in the tracheoesophageal groove
Explanation
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the right subclavian artery, while the left loops around the aortic arch. Both ascend in the tracheoesophageal groove to innervate the larynx.
Question 3777
Topic: 6. Spine
In lumbar pedicle screw placement, the intersection of the pars interarticularis, the transverse process, and the superior articular facet serves as a landmark. The exiting nerve root at the L4-L5 level is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, the exiting nerve root is named for the pedicle above the disc space. Therefore, the L4 nerve root exits at the L4-L5 foramen.
Question 3778
Topic: 6. Spine
In the spine, the vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6
Explanation
The vertebral artery arises from the subclavian artery and typically enters the transverse foramen at C6, though anatomical variations can occur.
Question 3779
Topic: 6. Spine
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level will most likely result in direct compression of which neural structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4 nerve root
Explanation
Far-lateral or extraforaminal disc herniations compress the exiting nerve root at that specific level. At L4-L5, the L4 nerve root exits below the L4 pedicle and is directly compressed by a far-lateral herniation, whereas a paracentral herniation typically compresses the traversing L5 root.
Question 3780
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), excessive lateral dissection risks injury to the vertebral artery. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6
Explanation
The vertebral artery typically branches from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at C6 in approximately 90-95% of individuals. Dissection lateral to the longus colli muscle borders increases the risk of iatrogenic injury.
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